ANSWERS TO THE VIDEO TEACHING OF RABBI STEVE BERKSON, "DO YOU KNOW THE FATHER AND THE SON?" PART 11

 

TABLE OF ANSWERS: - Page 1

1.     Table of Answers. Page 1.

2.     INTRODUCTION. Page 2.

3.     ANSWER A: I AM or I AM WHO I AM. – Page 5.

4.     ANSWER B: Yahweh does not change. – Malachi 3:6 & Yeshua does not change. – Hebrews 13:8 – Page 14.

5.     ANSWER C: Aleph and Tav / Alpha and Omega. Revelation 1:8, Revelation 1:17-18, Revelation 17:40, Revelation 21:6-7, Revelation 22:12, 13.  – Page 18.

6.     ANSWER D: First and the Last. Isaiah 44:6 and Revelation 1:17. Page 21.

7.     ANSWER E: They shall look upon ME or HIM that they pierced. Zechariah 12:10. Page 25.

8.     ANSWER F: John 1:1 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Elohim, and the Word was Elohim”. Page 23.

9.     ANSWER G: Isaiah 43:11 Besides me there is NO SAVIOR. Page 31.

10.ANSWER H: GENESIS 19:24 Yahweh throwing Fire on Sodom from heaven. Two Yahweh’s? Page 34.

11.ANSWER I: Zechariah 14:2, 3. Is this Scripture situation speaking about Yahweh or Yeshua or both? Page 36.

12. ANSWER J: Who is the, ONE "TRUE EL (GOD)"? If ANYONE Else is or may be called 'El God or god or Mighty one' in Scripture, are They Always a False god? Who is the, one Almighty "True God (El)"? – Page 38.

13. ANSWER K: No one else. Isaiah 45:5 (Similar: Isaiah 45:18,). Page 42.

14. ANSWER L: I ALONE. Isaiah 44:24. Page 45.

15. CONCLUSION: Teachings Proposed By Rabbi Steve In Part 11 Which I Do Agree To. Page 48.

 

 INTRODUCTION: A brief groundwork to understand the background of the answers.

Almost in the ending of the above Video, post timing at 57 Minutes and 33 Seconds, you Sir Berkson make the Request and Suggestion, which I have here quoted you in verbatim, “IF I AM WRONG, PLEASE JUST SHOW ME. SHOW ME WHERE I HAVE MESSED THIS UP. SHOW ME WHERE THERE IS ANY WAY, THIS DOESN’T PLAY THE WAY I JUST SAID IT. I TOLD YOU I CAN’T PROOVE IT. BUT I CANT FIND ANY SCENARIO THAT DOESN’T END UP WHERE WE JUST ENDED UP”.

Most Respected Sir Berkson. You are 99 % right in your answer. The 1 % answer that you are missing out is where you are literally MISSING THE MARK of a scripturally perfect answer. (The Greek word, “Sin”- hamartia (G264) is derived from the root word hamartanō (G266) which historically was an archer’s term that means to "miss the mark”.)

Before I proceed, I am compelled to LAY THE GROUNDWORK, so that my answer is sufficiently clear:

Ø  Repeatedly all throughout the Video teaching, you are admitting that, you are not able to PROVE this teaching that Yeshua in Flesh on Earth, is the SAME Almighty Yahweh in heaven.

Ø  Regularly throughout the video teaching, you also mention, statements that the teaching of Fleshly Yeshua on Earth, is the Almighty Yahweh in Heaven and vice-versa, is YOUR OPINION & YOUR PERSONAL UNDERSTANDING, EDUCATED GUESS, MAKING A CASE, PREMISES, HYPOTEHESIS, NOT ABLE TO PROVE IT and other similar phrases through which you sincerely & honestly admit that you, yourself are not 100% convinced, but since you do not SEE ANY OTHER POSSIBLE ANSWER OR ALTERNATIVE, So you are forcing yourself to accept by your Human Understanding the ONLY possible answer that you as a Rabbi can come up with.

Ø  YOU HAVE SELF-CORNERED YOURSELF INTO BELIEVING WHAT YOU WANT TO BELIEVE IN: Statements such as: - There is NO middle ground. There is NO other alternative. There is no other answer. This is like a Self Fulfilling Theory. By making these statements you have created an ABSOLUTE SITUATION. Absolute meaning, you have pre decided that there is no other answer, so whatever you have managed to come up with, this is THE ANSWER!  For many years, you are battling with the supposedly multiple scriptural contradictions in Isaiah (which are not actually contradictions), so your human mind has finally caved in and given up. Thus the last most accurate answer that your mental faculties have presented, YOU HAVE FINALLY ACCEPTED THEM AS THE ONLY POSSIBLE AND PROBABLE ANSWER OR TEACHING.

Ø  Repeated statements of yours in the Video Teaching (ONLY SEEN IN PART 11) are an example of EISEGESIS: Eisegesis, which is the interpretation of a passage based on a subjective, non-analytical reading. The word Eisegesis literally means “to lead into,” which means the interpreter injects his own ideas into the text or scripture or word of Elohim, making it mean whatever he or she wants the outcome of the answer to be. EXEGESIS: The opposite approach to Scripture is Exegesis which is the exposition or explanation of a text based on a careful, objective analysis. The word exegesis literally means “to lead out of.” That means that the interpreter is led to his conclusions by following the text or scripture of Elohim’s word. This is also called in Latin as, SOLA SCRIPTURA meaning, Let SCRIPTURE INTERPRET SCRIPTURE.

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SINCE YOU HAVE NOT ENABLED THE TRANSCRIPT FEATURE ON YOUR, YOU TUBE VIDEO AND PLUS YOUR PART 11 VIDEO TEACHING IS NOT MADE AVAILABLE IN TEXTUAL FORMAT ON YOUR WWW.MTOI.ORG WEBSITE IN THE MEDIA SECTION, HENCE I AM FORCED, PAINFULLY TO QUOTE THE VIDEO TIME FOR EVERY SCRIPTURAL REBUTAL OF MINE.

=================================================================Here I Go. May Yahweh’s Ruach ha Kodesh enlighten my mind and take control of my fingers as I type. With reverential fear I proceed. Rabbi Steve Berkson, I AM NOT TEACHING. I AM NOT PREACHING. I AM JUST SHARING MY STUDY AND DISCOVERED SOLUTIONS, AS YOU HAVE HUMBLY ASKED FOR ALTERNATIVE ANSWERS IN YOUR PART 11 VIDEO ENDING. Shalom.

I PLEAD YOU WITH FOLDED HANDS AND BENDED KNEES, PLEASE KEEP AWAY ALL OR ANY IMPERFECT HUMAN MALE EGO THAT WE ALL HUMANS TEND TO HAVE, WHICH COULD BE DETRIMENTAL OR A DETERENT IN UNDERSTANDING ANSWERS THAT YAH HAS PROVIDED TO ME.

BEFORE WE PROCEED FURTHER LET’S BE CLEAR ON THIS:

ü  All translations and versions of the Original Word of Elohim (God) Yahweh from the Original languages of Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic are NOT DIVINELY INSPIRED and hence can be prone to human error and Mistakes in Translation.

ü  (Not even one English or any other Language Translation in the whole wide world can claim that their specific translation is DIVINELY INSPIRED.

ü  Not even THE SCRIPTURES VERSION BIBLE translation produced by Institute of Scripture Research is infallible or inspired.

ü  All translations are prone to Human Translators Imperfections, are infallible and can have human or machine or printing errors in translation work.)

KEEPING THE ABOVE TRUTH AND FACT IN MIND:

Ø  The Translation of the Bible in the English language CAN & MAY be wrong or erroneous or faulty.

Ø  The copied manuscripts CAN & MAY have in it mistakes or differences or additions as history has evidently documented that human interferences have occurred during the process of Manuscript copying too.

Ø  The reader CAN & MAY be misinterpreting the scripture text.I AM WHO I AM. 

At Video teaching approximately around, timing 05:49, you introduce the IDEA of I AM.

Since the English Translators have preferred to use the words or term of I AM to be translated at Exodus 3:14 in the Torah (Old Testament) and similarly use the same words at John 8:58 in the Evangelion (Renewed Testament), any person will naturally TRY TO CONNECT THE TWO DOTS OF I AM IN TORAH AND I AM IN RENEWED COVENANT AND VOILA, SEE YAHWEH OF OLD TESTAMENT IS THE SAME I AM OR YESHUA OF THE NEW TESTAMENT!!!! Is this really 100% Tested, Tried and scripturally accurate? Was I AM really used of its equivalent in Hebrew? Yeshua spoke in Hebrew or Aramaic. So did Yeshua say I AM in any of those two Semitic languages? 

VERY IMPORTANT NOTE: 

The 66 little books of the Bible have been directly inspired and authored by Almighty God Yahweh. No argument on this. But please be aware, that the actual autographa (original writings of these all 66 little books called the Bible) do NOT exist today. Not even 1 Original book of the Bible has been found by Archaeologist’s till date today.

 

All the original hand written and Elohim inspired 66 books of the Bible have totally disappeared from the face of the earth. Why? No one knows. Let’s say only El Yahweh knows. But he has not disclosed this facet of the truth. The Bible does not answer this question directly; neither does it throw any light on the reasons for its total disappearance. 

 

So always remember when any Confusion or Complication or Contradiction appears in Elohim’s holy and sacred words, LIKE FOR YOU SIR STEVE BERKSON WITH MOST OF ISAIAH SCRIPTURES, relating to ONE SAVIOR, ONE ELOHIM, ONE NAME TO BE SAVED IN, etc., most of the times it gets clear on comparing the earliest copies of the Holy Writ in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek languages.

 

Inadvertently or Ignorantly or even due to human Imperfections and many times due to direct Intervention, humans have either added or removed something or some word or some flavor or have added some emphasis to Elohim’s Holy Word in the many translations and versions of the Holy Bible. Even Almighty El Yahweh (YHWH) knew this was bound to happen in the distant future hence the warning and curse at Revelation 22:18, 19. - New Living Translation “And if anyone removes any of the words from this book of prophecy, God will remove that person's share in the tree of life and in the holy city that are described in this book.” 

 

With the above Information, Knowledge and Understanding now please proceed to read my researched article on the topic of I AM or I AM WHO I AM.

 

HEBREW WORDS AT EXODUS 3:14 ARE:

 

In Hebrew Language Script: אהיה אשר אהיה

 

Transliterated Word to Word in English: Ehyeh asher Ehyeh

 

Translated Word to Word in Google Translate Tool: I will be who I will be

 

Translated in Random Online Hebrew – English Translator athttp://www.etranslator.ro/hebrew-english-online-translator.php: I will be who I will be

 

SEE THE EVIDENCE WITH YOUR OWN EYES WIDE OPEN. Exodus 3:14 in Hebrew Language, below it is a WORD to WORD English translation and on the right hand side, see for yourself with your own eyes how Translators took the liberty of changing direct translated words of Hebrew from, “ I shall become” to present day modern wrong translations of, “I AM”.  

 

 

Source: http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/exo3.pdf

  

The Greek texts of John 8:58:

 

Let us look at John 8:58 in Greek:

 

58 εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς· ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί.

ἐγὼ (egó) was translated as I.

εἰμί (eimi) was translated as am.

 

 According to Strong's Greek Dictionary, eimi (εἰμί or εἰμὶ) means:
 "am, have been, it is I, was.  The first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic) -- am, have been, X it is I, was. See also ei, eien, einai, heis kath heis,en, esomai, esmen, este, esti, kerdos, isthi, o."

"NASB Word Usage
accompanied* (1), accompany* (2), am (138), amount (1), amounts (1), appear* (1), asserted* (1), become* (5), been (45), been* (1), being (26), belong (3), belonged* (1), belonging (1), belonging* (1), belongs (4), bring* (1), came (1), come (5), consist (1), crave* (1), depends* (1), do (1), done* (1), exist (3), existed (4), existed* (1), falls (1), found (1), had (8), happen (4), have (2), have come (1), lived (1), mean (1), mean* (2), means (7), meant (2), originate (1), owns (1), remain (3), remained (1), rest (1), sided (1), stayed (2), themselves (1), there (6), turn (1)."  

 

 Also, according to Strong's Greek Dictionary, egó (ἐγώ) means: "I, me. A primary pronoun of the first person I (only expressed when emphatic) -- I, me. For the other cases and the plural see eme, emoi, emou, hemas, hemeis, hemin, hemon, etc."

  

 Also, according to Kypros.org's dictionary, eimai (είμαι), which is a sister word of eimi (εἰμί), means "have".  The following examples prove this:

-”have a good head for" reads in Greek as:
      είμαι καλός σε, θυμάμαι καλά (eimai kalos se, thymamai kala) -”have one's hands full"      είμαι απασχολημένος (eimai apascholimenos)

  

 Also, the same dictionary, Kypros.org's dictionary, declares that eimai (είμαι) also means "am":  

-  am	=	είμαι, έιμαι
		eimai, eimai

 Also, according to the otenet.gr online dictionary, eimai (είμαι) also means "I am": - είμαι  υπόχρεως = I  am  indebted  

 

So eimi (εἰμί) and eimai (είμαι) can mean have, am, and few other meanings depending on the sentence and the context. 

 

See the following for more proofs regarding eimi (εἰμί).

 

Furthermore, in other verses in the New Testament, the Greek of the latter word was translated as "have":

1-  John 3:28 αὐτοὶ ὑμεῖς μοι μαρτυρεῖτε ὅτι εἶπον ἐγὼ / ὅτι· οὐκ εἰμὶ ἐγὼ ὁ Χριστός, ἀλλ' ὅτι ἀπεσταλμένος εἰμὶ ἔμπροσθεν ἐκείνου.

"You yourselves testify that I said, 'I am not the Christ,' but, 'I have been sent before him.'"

 

Furthermore, the following ample English translations further confirm this:

 

1.     John 3:28 (New American Standard Bible) 28 "You yourselves are my witnesses that I said, 'I am not the Christ,' but, 'I have been sent ahead of Him.'  

2.     John 3:28 (Amplified Bible) 28 You yourselves are my witnesses [you personally bear me out] that I stated, I am not the Christ (the Anointed One, the Messiah), but I have [only] been sent before Him [in advance of Him, to be His appointed forerunner, His messenger, His announcer].  

3.     John 3:28 (English Standard Version) 28 You yourselves bear me witness, that I said, 'I am not the Christ, but I have been sent before him.'  

4.     John 3:28 (New King James Version) 28 You yourselves bear me witness, that I said, ‘I am not the Christ,’ but, ‘I have been sent before Him.’  

5.     John 3:28 (Young's Literal Translation) 28 ye yourselves do testify to me that I said, I am not the Christ, but, that I am having been sent before him;  

6.     John 3:28 (Holman Christian Standard Bible) 28 You yourselves can testify that I said, 'I am not the Messiah, but I've been sent ahead of Him.'  

7.     John 3:28 (New International Reader's Version) 28 You yourselves are witnesses that I said, 'I am not the Christ. I was sent ahead of him.'  

8.   John 3:28 (Worldwide English (New Testament)) 28 You yourselves heard what I said. I am not the Christ but I have been sent ahead of the Christ.  

 

So what did we learn here?

 

1-  εἰμὶ, while it means "am", but it could also mean "have been, was", or be used in reference to something that happened in the past (before the present).

 

2- As I already demonstrated in the previous main-section, the context of Yeshua’s' response clearly and indisputably referred to Yeshua have already seen Abraham before the latter was even born.

 

3-  So even if you still insist on translating it as "I am", you still couldn't deny that in both John 3:28 and John 8:58, above, the "I am" was 100% referring to the past, which in English it would be "I have".

 

4- In all of this, there is not a shred of evidence that suggests that Yeshua was declaring to be the "I am What I am" of Elohim Yahweh Almighty in Exodus 3.

 

 Even Yahweh's Statement in Exodus 3 is not only unique to Him.  How many billions and trillions of times did humans throughout history and their lives say I am what I am, or I am who I am?  How times did people say things such as: "Accept me for who I am" and other endless similar statements?

 

Imagine in the New Testament Times, if any Apostle or Disciple was recorded as using or saying the above phrase of, "Accept me for who I am". Then Sir Steve Berkson, would you have used the same logic of connecting the dots of Exodus 3:14 with John 5:48?  Would you say that whosoever had to have used I AM would then qualify to be considered as same as Elohim Yahweh in heaven? THIS IS LOGIC THAT IS SO FLAWED. It’s as you have explained in your own teachings, connecting the wrong dots as you so please.

 

5- It is clear that those who insist on magnifying Yeshua to this level (the level of Exodus Chapter 3), have no evidence whatsoever to support their claim. IT IS A PLAIN ASSUMPTION, AS MENTIONED BY YOU SIR STEVE.  

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Quoted partly but in Verbatim (as it is) from the Original source at http://www.jewsforjudaism.com/web/faq/faq128.html: (Cited resource currently down on internet for technical reasons)

 

The below is a Rebuttal by Jews regarding Christians misusing John 8:58 to make a wrong claim of “identifying Jesus of the New Testament as Jehovah (Yahweh) of the Old Testament.”

 

In John 8:56-58, John is expounding his belief that Jesus had a prehuman existence as an angelic being in heaven. John's Jesus is proclaiming here that this prehumen existence began before Abraham was born: "Before Abraham came into being, I am." The fact of the matter is that the text does not at all indicate how long Jesus supposedly lived before Abraham. In no honest way can John's statement be taken to identify Jesus as God.

 

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Also, when we read Yeshua’s words, what do we find in New Testament:

 

         Yahweh Almighty is Greater than Yeshua.

If Yeshua was the, I AM, the Yahweh, the LORD Almighty of Exodus 3:14, then the above statement would not have been made by Yeshua.

 

         No one is "Good", including Yeshua. Only Yahweh Almighty is good.

If the, I AM of Exodus 3:14 and the, I AM of John 5:58 is the same as we are TOLD & TAUGHT, then Yeshua is making a Contradictory statement above. He also should have BEEN GOOD.

 

         Yeshua said he doesn't know when the Hour will come.  Only Yahweh Almighty Knows.

Funny Situation created now. The, I AM FATHER EL (God) of Hebrew Scriptures (Torah & Tanakh etc.) only knows the HOUR of the end. The, I AM SON El (God) of the Greek Scriptures (Renewed Covenant) is clearly admitting that he does not know.  

 

         Yeshua said that OUR EL is One EL.

 Jesus’s name, Yeshua in Hebrew language itself has a meaning and it means; “Yahweh is my Salvation.”

 

        Yeshua was tempted by Satan after 40 days and 40 nights of Fasting and Praying, while Yahweh the Almighty "cannot be tempted! 

 

Still Scholars and Evangelists and Priests and Pastors and Elders want to say that the, I AM of John 5:58 is the same Yahweh (YHWH)  now as YESHUA in the flesh, the Almighty El in the flesh on planet earth and this ALMIGHTY EL, THE I AM is being tempted by Satan. OH MY GOODNESS GRACIOUS!!!!!! (How can Satan tempt Almighty El Yahweh, when he is on earth or Mars or anywhere in the Universe in whatever form that it so pleases to Almighty El Yahweh?)

 

I could go on and on, showing quotations of Yeshua that prove that he is only a CREATED BEING, AN AGENT, A PROPHET, A DIVINE REPRESENTATIVE, ALMIGHTY’S PLAN, SON OF GOD (EL), A CO-CREATOR, A MIGHTY EL (not Almighty El) and MONOGENES (Unique One) of El Shaddai Yahweh.

 

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SEE FOR YOURSELF HOW THE OLDEST TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE FROM THE FOURTH & FIFTH CENTURY TRANSLATE JOHN 5: 58

 

From the Fourth/Fifth Century:

before Abraham was, I have been

Syriac. Edition: A Translation of the Four Gospels from the Syriac of the Siniatic Palimpset, by Agnes Smith Lewis, London, 1984.

 

From the Fifth Century:

before ever Abraham came to be, I was

Curetonian Syriac. Edition: The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, by F. Crawford Burkitt, Vol. 1, Cambridge, England, 1904.

From the Fifth Century:

before Abraham existed, I was

Syriac Peshitta. Edition: The Syriac New Testament Translated into English from the Peshitto Version, by James Murdock, seventh ed., Boston and London, 1896.

 

From the Fifth Century:

before Abraham came to be, I was

Georgian. Edition: “The Old Georgian Version of the Gospel of John”, by Robert P. Blake and Maurice Brière, published in Patrologia Orientalis, Vol. XXVI, fascicle 4, Paris, 1950.

From the Sixth Century:

before Abraham was born, I was

Ethiopic. Edition: Novum Testamentum ... Æiopice, by Thomas Pell Platt, revised by F. Praetorius, Leipzig, 1899.

 

PLEASE CHECK THE CONTEXT: Using the words I AM which is not what the actual sense is either in Greek. Also the context of the John 5: 58 speak about AGE OR TIME and not of the TITLE or DIVINITY of Yeshua.

 

NOTE WHAT YOU’RE THE SCRIPTURES VERSION BIBLE TRANSLATION SAYS FOR EXODUS 3:14. “The Hebrew text reads: ‘eheyeh ‘asher ‘eheyeh, the word ‘eheyeh being derived from hayah which means to be to exist, but the Aramaic text here in V. 14 reads ayah ashar ayah”.

 

Yeshua didn't even say it (I AM)  in Greek!

 

Let us also not forget a very important point here, and that is Yeshua did not even speak these words in Greek.  And we are connecting dots (making assumptive teachings) on English translation of I AM which our Master and Messiah did not use in its equivalent in his quoted sayings.

 

He spoke them in Aramaic, and we do not have the original texts of Yeshua’s words. 

 

What we have today from Greek is a mere translation to what Yeshua ha Messiah had supposedly said.  Translations are not originals.  Translations are not inspired by Almighty Elohim Yahweh. Thus, we don't even know FOR A FACT what exactly Yeshua really said in Aramaic to begin with, with the Jews around.  

 

IF Yeshua is truly the, I AM the same Almighty El Yahweh the I AM of the Old Testament then WHY DID THIS I AM (Yeshua) RUN FROM THE SAME GROUP OF PEOPLE WHO WANTED TO BEAT HIM UP!

 

Did the, I AM of the New Testament get Scared of a Beating?

This all happened right after Yeshua supposedly gave his Ultimate Statement about his real deity! Of he supposedly claiming to be ALMIGHTY ELHOHIM YAHWEH! Of course, Yeshua never gave such statement (the, I AM in Exodus 3:14). 

 

This is only the Trinitarians’ & Binatarians desperate wishes and blasphemies.  Do you see how twisted and blasphemous the Trinitarians’ and Binatarians (TWO ELOHIM IN ONE EL THEORY) logic is? THIS CONTRADICTS THE SHEMA. Yeshua is a mighty El. Not the same Almighty El Yahweh. To say so, is to contradict the Shema. (Deuteronomy 6:4–9, 11:13–21; Numbers 15:37–41). Yahweh the Father is ONE. According to your teaching Sir Steve, YOU Steve (Father) and HE Steven (Son) are the SAME. YOU ARE ONE! ARE YOU? One in purpose, okay. One in faith, okay. One in teachings, okay. BUT NOT ONE IN AGE OR EXPERIENCE OR BIOLOGICAL CONSTITUATION, even both being in same substance called, Human being.

 

 

Exodus 3:14

“And Elohim said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you”. (RSB 04^th Edition) IN SOME ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS, Who Decided Arbitrarily On Their Own To CAPITALISE only these two words of I AM in the Old Testament and the New Testament Bible in English language translations?

 

CAPS are given or introduced by the Translators. But why? Why are imperfect, uninspired, mere humans adding CAPS to the words I AM, when in the Original Copies of the Hebrew Scriptures in Hebrew there is nothing in CAPITAL words? Their only sacred job is to do an HONEST TRANSLATION WORK, not to add their EMPHASIS to Elohim’s Sacred words.

Some Modern day English Version Translations of Exodus 3:14

 

Exodus 3:14 CJB

http://www.biblestudytools.com/cjb/exodus/3-14.html

 

14 God said to Moshe, "Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh [I am/will be what I am/will be]," and added, "Here is what to say to the people of Isra'el: 'Ehyeh [I Am or I Will Be] has sent me to you.'"

Exodus 3:14 (DRC1752) Douay-Rheims Challoner Revision 1752

 

God said to Moses: I AM WHO AM. He said: Thus shalt thou say to the children of Israel: HE WHO IS, hath sent me to you.

 

Exodus 3:14 M (Moffatt Translation)

 

 "God said to Moses, "I-will-be-what-I-will-be: tell the Israelites that I-will-be has sent you to them."

 

Exodus 3:14 (Bible in Living English)

Exodus 3:14 Rotherham Bible

 

14 And God said unto Moses, I Will Become whatsoever I please, And he said—Thus, shalt thou say to the sons of Israel, I Will Become hath sent me unto you.

 

Exodus 3:14 New World Translation, 2013 Revised Version

 

 ¹⁴  So God said to Moses: “I Will Become What I Choose* to Become.”*+ And he added: “This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘I Will Become has sent me to you.’”

 

Exodus 3:14 - Tanakh, JPS, 1985.

 

"And God said to Moses, `Ehyeh (hyh))-Asher-Ehyeh.' (a) He continues, `Thus shall you say to the Israelites, "Ehyeh (b) sent me to you."'" – Tanakh, JPS, 1985.

 

Tanakh Footnotes:

 

"(a) Meaning of Hebrew, uncertain; variously translated: "I Am That I Am; "I Am Who I AM; I Will Be What I Will Be; etc."

 

"(b) Others "I AM or "I Will Be."

 

Exodus 3:14 - Miles Coverdale Bible (1535).

God saide unto Moses: I wyl be what I wyll be. And he sayde: Thus shalt thou saye vnto ye children of Israel: I wyl be hath sent me vnto you.

 

In addition in many other English Bible Translations there were the following alternate readings in footnotes:

 

American Standard Version - “I WILL BE”; NIV Study Bible - “I WILL BE”; Revised Standard Version - “I WILL BE”; New Revised Standard Version - “I WILL BE”; New English Bible - “I WILL BE”; Revised English Bible - “I WILL BE”; Living Bible - “I WILL BE”; Good News Bible - “I WILL BE.”

 

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All the places where ehyeh is used in the writings of Moses are listed below. I believe you will find they all mean "I will be" not "I am," particularly when it is Jehovah/Yahweh speaking about his relationship to his people (as also in Ex. 3:14) 

Now look up all the other scriptures which use ehyeh in the rest of Moses’ writings in the Torah and see how they are translated:

Genesis 26:3 (Jehovah: "I will be with you" NRSV)
Genesis 31:3 (Jehovah: "I will be with you" NRSV)
Exodus 3:12 (Jehovah: I will be with you" NRSV)
Exodus 4:12 (Jehovah: "I will be with your mouth" NRSV)
Exodus 4:15 (Jehovah: "I will be with your mouth" NRSV)
Deuteronomy 31:23 (Moses: "I will be with you" NRSV)

Exodus 3:14 is incorrectly rendered as “I am” in many Trinitarian & Binatarians* 

translations. *Binatarianism is a Christian theology of two persons, personas, or two aspects in one substance/Divinity (or God). Classically, Binatarianism is understood as a form of monotheism — that is, that God is absolutely one being; and yet with Binatarianism there is “twoness" in God, which means one God family. In other simple words, Trinitarians have 3 Gods or Persons or Deities in one God; similarly Binatarians have 2 Gods or 2 Persons or 2 Deities or 2 Members of the same Godhead family.

ANSWER B

Yahweh does not change. – Malachi 3:6. Yeshua does not change. – Hebrews 13:8

 

At Video teaching timing, 16:25, Sir Steve mentions that HE IS BUILDING A CASE, I repeat, he is building a case to communicate and convince that since it is mentioned in scripture that the Almighty Yahweh does not change at Malachi 3:6 and then a similar statement is made at Hebrews 13:8 about Yeshua that he too remains the same forever.

 

Let’s check it out.

 

Malachi 3:6 – “For I am Yahweh, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed”. (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

El Shaddai (ALMIGHTY God) does not LIE

Numbers 23:19 - “El is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?” (RSB 04th Edition)

 

El Shaddai (ALMIGHTY God) does not DIE

1 Timothy 6:16 – “Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honor and power everlasting. Amen”. (RSB 04th Edition)

 

The above scripture, if you simply read the full context, it is talking and referring to the Almighty El (God) of the Torah, Tanakh (the Old Testament El) who is the same forever even in the Renewed Covenant (the New Testament).

 

The foreign idea and concept that El Shaddai Yahweh in spirit form became the Mighty El Yeshua in flesh form, is FROM THE HUMAN MIND OF SIR STEVE BERKSON. There is NOT EVEN A SINGLE DIRECT SCRIPTURE MAKING THIS STATEMENT IN THE BIBLE. There is mention of Yeshua as the Mighty El, the Word or the Logos coming to earth in flesh. But there is no mention of the Almighty El Shaddai putting on human flesh. NO.

 

So the El Shaddai or the Almighty one Yahweh truly has never changed.

 

Hebrews 13:8 – “Yahshua Messiah the same yesterday, and today, and forever”. (RSB 04th Edition)

 

Now let’s see, first Yeshua (Jesus) what he was and if he ever changed.

 

At Collosians.1:15, the Bible explicitly states that Yeshua was a created being. He is said to be the "firstborn of all creation. “Who is the image of the invisible El, the firstborn of every creature:” (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

New International Version
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

 

English Standard Version
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.

 

Berean Study Bible
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

 

Berean Literal Bible
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation,

 

King James Bible
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

 

New American Standard Bible
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation: 

NASB 1995
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.

NASB 1977
And He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation.

Amplified Bible
He is the exact living image [the essential manifestation] of the unseen God [the visible representation of the invisible], the firstborn [the preeminent one, the sovereign, and the originator] of all creation.

Christian Standard Bible
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

Holman Christian Standard Bible
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

American Standard Version
who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;

Contemporary English Version
Christ is exactly like God, who cannot be seen. He is the first-born Son, superior to all creation.

Douay-Rheims Bible
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

English Revised Version
who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;

Good News Translation
Christ is the visible likeness of the invisible God. He is the first-born Son, superior to all created things.

GOD'S WORD® Translation
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.

International Standard Version
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

Literal Standard Version
who is the image of the invisible God, firstborn of all creation,

NET Bible
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation,

New Heart English Bible
who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

Weymouth New Testament
Christ is the visible representation of the invisible God, the Firstborn and Lord of all creation.

World English Bible
who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.

Young's Literal Translation
who is the image of the invisible God, first-born of all creation,

 

The Greek word "firstborn" (PRWTOTOKOS) is used 130 times in the Bible (LXX). It always indicates a beginning of something that was not in existence before. PRWTOTOKOS never becomes "detached" from the primary meaning of a beginning of existence.

 

Also, grammatically the phrase "firstborn of creation" (PRWTOTOKOS PASHS KTISEWS) demands that Yeshua be part of creation; a "creature." This is because this grammatical structure is a "partitive genitive" which means that the firstborn has to be part of the group mentioned. The expression "the firstborn of" occurs over 30 times in the Bible, and in every instance the meaning is the same: the firstborn is part of the group. The "firstborn of the sheep" is a sheep (Genesis 4:4), the "first born of the animals" is an animal, (Nehemiah. 10:36) and "the firstborn of creation" is a creature! The genitive places the Messiah as part of the created order (KTISEWS). So the evidence is explicit that Yeshua is a created being.

 

Then Revelation 3:14 states that Yeshua is: "the beginning of the creation by God" (hE ARCHE TES KTISEWS). The Greek grammar and context clearly teaches that Yeshua is a created being! In John's writings he always uses ARCHE in its primary and usual meaning of something's "beginning." John also uses the genitive construction and in the Bible, and in EVERY occurrence where ARXH is followed by a genitive phrase (of the "...") that which is called the ARXH is always a member of the group referred to by the genitive (cf. Job 40:19). And it ALWAYS signifies the subject’s beginning (Matthew 24:8; Mark 1:1; John 2:11; Philippians 4:14; Genesis 10:10; 49:3; Deuteronomy 21:17; Hosea 1:2). Therefore, the semantic evidence is that Yeshua is a creation, the first of God's (Elohim’s) creations, that he had a beginning.

 

Also most scholars agree that Revelation 3:14 is a quote from Proverbs 8:22!

 

Many modern day Trinitarians deny that the "wisdom" of in Proverbs.8 is speaking of Yeshua, it has not been so historically. The terms used by the NT writers caused most early writers to identify Yeshua as the wisdom of Proverbs 8. The NT repeatedly applies the terminology of Proverbs 8 to Yeshua, and so confirms the understanding of Yeshua being a created being, who had a "birth" before the rest of creation. Compare Revelation.3:14 with Proverbs 8:22. Proverbs 8:23, 30 with Colossians 1:15, 16. Proverbs 8:35 with John 8:51; 14:6. 1 Corinthians 1:24, 30 and Colossians 2:3. Proverbs 8:31 with John 3:16.  Matthew 11:19, Luke 11:49 with Matthew 23:34-36. Proverb 8:31 with John 3:16.

 

Micah 5:2

Then in Micah 5:2 we see that Yeshua indeed had an "origin or start" to his prehuman life! (Gesenius' Lexicon pg. 458; BDB Lexicon, pg. 426).

 

In Micah 5:2 we see the word origin translated into the English from the Hebrew word "matsaoth." It literally means origin. (Gesenius Hebrew Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament pg. 458; Brown, Driver Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, pg. 426) Here we see that Yeshua indeed had an "origin or start" to his prehuman life!

 

The commentary by Carl Friedreich Keil and Franz Delitzsch relates this:

 

"Coming forth out of Bethlehem involves the idea of descent. Consequently we must not restrict nytaJd{m (his goings forth) to the appearance of the predicted future Ruler in the olden time, or to the revelation of the Messiah as the Angel of Jehovah even in the patriarchal age, but must so interpret it that it at least affirms His origin as well...the words affirm both the origin of the Messiah before all worlds and His appearances in the olden time."—Biblical Commentary of the Old Testament, The Twelve Minor Prophets, Vol. II, pp. 480-1.

 

Therefore, Micah teaches that the life of the Son of God had a start in the ‘indefinite' past. After that beginning of life, Yahweh his Father used His Logos (the Word) as His master worker and spokesman.—Proverbs 8:22–31, John 1:1-3. In view of what these Scriptures state concerning Yeshua’s beginning and in view of the fact that there is not one Scripture stating Yeshua existed from eternity, we must conclude that Yeshua was a created being, the first thing created by El Shaddai Yahweh.

 

CONCLUSION OF THIS ANSWER: Yahweh is always the same. The El Shaddai – The Almighty. – Malachi 3:6. Yeshua is the same, yesterday, today and forever. The Mighty El, The Son of God, The Word of God, The Logos. – Hebrews 13:8

ANSWER C

 

Confusion and Conclusion about the Aleph and Tav / Alpha and Omega

 

Mentioning this once: Aleph & Tav is in Hebrew. Aleph is the first letter and Tav is the last letter in the Hebrew alphabets. Its equivalent in Greek is Alpha & Omega, and its equivalent in English is First and the Last. Aleph Bet are the alphabets in Hebrew. Alpha & Omega are the first and last alphabets in Greek and First and Last is just what it is, first and last in English.

 

Not even once during the full Video teaching of, “Do you know the Father and the Son? – Part 11”, does Rabbi Steve Berkson try to check the Connection or Context or Background of why and when Aleph and Tav is applied to Yahweh and why and when it is applied to Yeshua. NOT EVEN ONCE.

 

In a very fast – forward approach, which he warns his viewers and disciples NEVER TO CONNECT THE DOTS wrongly, but he, himself proceeds in a hurry to do the same.

 

Let’s do this Scriptural Exercise of seeing when and why was Aleph & Tav applied to Yahweh and Yeshua and things will get awesome clear with full clarity. OR was it only applied to the Almighty Father Yahweh and if any applied to the Son Yeshua then why and in what context.

 

ALPHA AND OMEGA (Aleph and Tav)

Revelation 1:8, Revelation 1:17-18, Revelation 17:40, Revelation 21:6-7, Revelation 22:12, 13.

 

These are the names of the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet and are used as a title three times in the book of Revelation.

 

The additional occurrence of this phrase in the King James rendering of Revelation 1:11, however, does not receive support from some of the oldest Greek manuscripts, including the Al-exandrine, Sinaitic, and Codex Ephraemi rescrip-tus. It is, therefore, omitted in many modern translations.

 

Texts in which a title that belongs to the Father Yahweh is applied to the Son Yeshua or is claimed to apply to Yeshua.

 

Alpha and Omega: To whom does this title properly belong? At Revelation 1:8, its owner is said to be the Almighty El, the El Shaddai.

 

In verse 11 according to King James Version Bible, that title is applied to one whose description thereafter shows him to be Yeshua Messiah. But scholars recognize the reference to Alpha and Omega in verse 11 to be spurious, and so it does not appear in RS, NE, JB, NAB, Dy. (Many translations of Revelation into Hebrew recognize that the one described in verse 8 is Yahweh, and so they restore the personal name of Elohim there).

 

Revelation 1:8 - I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith Yahweh, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty. (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

Revelation 1:8 states: “The Lord God says, ‘I am the Alpha and the Omega, the One who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty!’” (The New American Bible) Clearly, the reference here is to the Most High God Jehovah/Yahweh.

 

While Yeshua is referred to in the previous verse as “coming with the clouds,” the words of Revelation 1:8 and the surrounding verses show that he could not be “the Alpha and the Omega.” In the Scriptures, only the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ (Yeshua ha Messiah) is spoken of as “the Lord God” and as the “Almighty.” Yeshua (Jesus) even refers to his Father as “my God.” (John 20:17; Revelation. 3:12)

 

AT ONE POINT SIR STEVE MAKES AN ARGUMENT THAT SINCE THERE WAS A CHANNEL OF COMMUNICATION THAT IS YAHWEH – YESHUA – ANGEL – JOHN – DISCIPLES, HENCE EVERY STATEMENT DIRECT OR INDIRECT IS MADE BY YESHUA ONLY AND NOT BY YAHWEH.

 

According to Revelation 1:1, the revelation was given to Yeshua by Yahweh. Hence, we should expect the words of the Almighty El to be quoted in the account. The first reference to “the Alpha and the Omega” is manifestly an example of this. Moreover, in the very next verse, the writer of the book of Revelation, the apostle John, says: “I . . . came to be in the isle that is called Patmos for speaking about Elohim (God) and bearing witness to Yeshua (Jesus).” (Revelation. 1:9) This provides additional confirmation that John understood Yahweh to be the Father of the Master Yeshua ha Messiah.

 

In what sense is God Yahweh “the One who is and who was and who is to come”? Being the eternal God, Yahweh has at all times been the Almighty. (Psalms. 90:2) So, in the indefinite past, he was the Most High. Furthermore, he continues to be the Almighty God and will come in that capacity to execute his judgment. As shown in other parts of the book of Revelation, Yahweh God will display his all-powerfulness at the time that his Son destroys all opposers of his sovereignty.​—Revelation 16:14; 19:13-16.

 

The next occurrence of the title “the Alpha and the Omega” is found at Revelation 21:6. In the following verse, the One who applies this title to himself says: “Anyone conquering will inherit these things, and I shall be his God and he will be my son.” Since Yeshua speaks of himself as a “brother” of these conquerors, it is the Father of the Messiah Yeshua who is referring to himself as “the Alpha and the Omega.”​—Compare Matthew 25:40; Hebrews 2:10-12.

 

Revelation 21:6, 7 indicates that believers & followers of Yeshua who are spiritual conquerors are to be ‘sons’ of the one known as the Alpha and the Omega. That is never said of the relationship of spirit-anointed believers to Yeshua Messiah.

 

Yeshua spoke of them as his ‘brothers.’ (Hebrews 2:11; Matthew 12:50; 25:40) But those ‘brothers’ of Yeshua are referred to as “sons of Elohim (God).” (Galatians  3:26; 4:6) (4) At Revelation 22:12, 

 

Today’s English Version Bible Translation (TEV) inserts the name Jesus (Yeshua), so the reference to Alpha and Omega in verse 13 is made to appear to apply to him. But the name Yeshua does not appear there in Greek and other translations do not include it.

 

Finally, at Revelation 22:12, 13, we read: “Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to render to each one as his work is. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.” This quotation appears among others that are ascribed to an angel and to Yeshua ha Messiah. Before these words are quoted in the book of Revelation, the angel who was instrumental in presenting the revelation to the apostle John spoke. (Revelation. 22:8, 9) Then, after the quotation that begins with Revelation 22:12 and ends with the words of verse 15, we find the statement: “I, Jesus, sent my angel.” (Revelation. 22:16) Since the context does not necessitate our attributing the words of Revelation 22:12, 13 either to the angel or to Jesus (Yeshua), they could have originated with another speaker. Consistent with the rest of the book of Revelation, “the Alpha and the Omega” must be the Almighty God. He is the One who comes in the capacity of a judge to reward and to punish individuals according to their works.

 

The thought expressed at Revelation 22:12 also harmonizes with what the apostle Paul wrote. He stated: “According to your hardness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath and of the revealing of God’s righteous judgment. And he will render to each one according to his works: everlasting life to those who are seeking glory and honor and incorruptibleness by endurance in work that is good; however, for those who are contentious and who disobey the truth but obey unrighteousness there will be wrath and anger, tribulation and distress, upon the soul of every man who works what is injurious, of the Jew first and also of the Greek; but glory and honor and peace for everyone who works what is good, for the Jew first and also for the Greek.” (Romans. 2:5-10) Of course, the judgment will be expressed by Yahweh God through his Son, for the apostle also says: “This will be in the day when God through Messiah Yeshua judges the secret things of mankind.”​—Romans. 2:16.

 

The fact that Yahweh God speaks of himself as “the Alpha and the Omega” gives us the assurance that what he has purposed will come to a successful realization. This should prompt us to do our utmost to be found approved by him. Our reward will then be certain, for the Bible tells us: “God is not unrighteous so as to forget your work and the love you showed for his name.”​—Hebrews. 6:10.

 

Also at Revelation 22:13, the Alpha and Omega is also said to be “the first and the last,” which expression is applied to Jesus at Revelation 1:17, 18. Similarly, the expression “apostle” is applied both to Yeshua and to certain ones of his followers. But that does not prove that they are the same person or are of equal rank, does it? (Hebrews. 3:1) So the evidence points to the conclusion that the title “Alpha and Omega” applies to the Almighty El, the El Shaddai, the Father, and not to the Son Yeshua.

ANSWER D

 

FIRST AND LAST (Isaiah 48:12, Isaiah 45:18 – Beginning & End. Isaiah 44:6, Isaiah 41:4)

 

Isaiah. 44:6 - "Thus saith Jehovah, ... I am the first and I am the last; and besides me there is no God .... (:8)  Is there a God besides me? ... I know not any." - ASV.

 

Revelation. 1:17 - "... And he laid his right hand upon me, saying, Fear not; I am the first and the last, (:18) and the Living one; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive for evermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades." - ASV.

 

The Trinitarian or Binatarians or Yeshua is Yahweh "proof" goes like this: "since only one can be first (and last), and since Yahweh is declared `first' (and `last') and Yeshua is also referred to as the ‘first' (and `last'), then they must both be the same one!"  Therefore, they say, Yeshua must be Yahweh. THIS IS SIR STEVE BERKSON’S REASONING TOO.

 

The answer is, of course, that there can be many who are "first and last."  As mentioned in the beginning, we must discover, from context, in what sense they are "first and last.?”

 

For example, in the Biblical understanding of the meaning of the term "first and last" (or "only"), Adam was "the first and last" human created from the dust of the earth.

 

Adam and Eve were the First and the Last Humans NOT TO HAVE A BELLY BUTTON as they were not born, but directly created by Yahweh.

 

But calling Adam, "the first and the last" would certainly not mean he is Yahweh, and it does not mean he is Yeshua (although any devious Bible student could find such "evidence" at 1 Corinthians. 15:45)!

 

We could certainly call Yeshua, "The first and the last" because he was the first and last (only) direct creation by Yahweh himself.  The rest of creation from Yahweh came through Yeshua.  But, instead of speculating on the many ways Yeshua could be considered the "first and the last" (only), we need to examine the use of "first and last" in context to discover in what sense it probably was intended originally!

 

Examining Is. 44:6, 8, we see that "first and last" refers to Yahweh being the only person who is the Most High God: "I am the first, and I am the last; and besides me there is no God (El) ... I know not any." - compare Isaiah 43:10.

 

Now if we examine Revelation 1:17, 18, we can see in what sense "the first and last" (only) is intended there.  Context shows that it is not (as it could have been) in the sense of the only direct creation by the Father, Yahweh, and it is certainly not in the sense of the only true God (El) (John 17:1, 3), but it clearly refers to the resurrection (the dying and then living again) of Yeshua!

 

Notice that the entire context refers to death and living again: Revelation. 1:17:

 

"I am the first and the last, (:18) and the living one; and I was [or `became'] dead, and behold I am alive for evermore, and I have the keys of death ..." - compare Revelation. 2:8 (the only other place Yeshua calls himself "the first and the last").

 

Yahweh, the Father, uses the expression at Revelation. 22:13 - and makes no reference to dying and living again, apparently intending it as he did at Isaiah. 44:6 - "I am the only God (El)."

 

So in what sense is Yeshua the first and last (only) resurrected person?  Just as  he was the first and last (only) of Yahweh’s direct creations (and all other things were created through Yeshua), so Yeshua was also the first and last (only one) of those resurrected to eternal life who was resurrected directly by the Father (Yahweh) Himself (and all others are to be resurrected through Yeshua who now has "the keys of death") - see John 6:39, 40; Acts 3:26; Acts 13:30, 33, 38.

 

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Zechariah 12:10 “And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn”. (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

In the video teaching, Rabbi Steve does mention something about, “He is coming the one who was pierced. Was father or son pierced?

 

Sir Steve Berkson, If you 100% rely and have blind faith in the regular The Scriptures Version Bible translation that you use, then if there is any translation error in that version, THEN YOU WILL BE CREATING ERRONEOUS TEACHINGS BASED ON FAULTY SPECIFIC SCRIPTURE TRANSLATION. I never see in your Videos you using multiple or parallel translations. Never see you encouraging your followers or disciples to check the interlinear versions in Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic.

 

Yahweh speaks: "...they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son" – Zechariah 12:10, KJV; cf. NKJV, NIV, NASB, NEB, REB, ASV, AB, KJIIV, ETRV, Douay, Beck, Rotherham, Lamsa.

 

According to your interpretation and also by many Trinitarians, you say that, since Yeshua was "pierced" by the Jews, then Yahweh God is Yeshua.

 

However, many other scholars admit that an alternate reading is undoubtedly the correct one:

 

"...when they look upon him whom they have pierced, they shall mourn for him" - RSV. Also in agreement with this rendering are NRSV; GNB; MLB; NAB (1970); NAB (1991); LB; Mo; AT; JB; NJB; NLV; BBE; and Byington. (ASV says in a footnote for "me" in Zech. 12:10: "According to some MSS. [manuscripts], `him'." Also see Rotherham footnote.)

 

Even the context tells us that the latter rendering is the correct one. Notice that after saying that they will look upon me (or him) Elohim Yahweh continues with "they shall mourn for him"! Notice how the KJV Bible translation contradicts itself here. The "me" in the first half simply does not agree with the "him" of the second half. Since there has never been any question about the accuracy of "him" in the second half, the disputed word of the first half (which has evidence for both renderings - see ASV and Rotherham footnotes) must also be properly rendered as "him" (or "the one").

 

The testimony of the first Century writers (the 'Ante-Nicene Fathers': all those who wrote before the Roman Catholic council of Nicaea in 325 A. D. which began the official introduction of a trinity doctrine into Christendom) confirms the non-Trinitarian meaning of Zechariah 12:10 ("him"). Ignatius, Irenaeus, and Tertullian (repeatedly) rendered Zechariah 12:10 as "him whom they pierced"! This is especially significant because Trinitarians themselves claim these particular early Christians (including Origen who doesn't quote Zechariah 12:10 at all in his existing writings) are the very ones who began the development the trinity doctrine for Christendom!

 

The OT Greek Septuagint uses "me" (in existing copies, at least - 4th century A.D. and later), but it is significantly different from the Hebrew text: "They shall look upon me, because they have mocked me, and they shall make lamentation for him, as for a beloved [friend], and they shall grieve intensely, as for a firstborn [son]." - Zechariah 12:10, Septuagint, Zondervan, 1976 printing. In other words, (1) they will look upon God whom they have mocked [not "pierced"] as their judgment arrives and (2) they will mourn the Messiah. The two are not the same person here, nor the same El (God)!

 

"The [Hebrew] text of Zechariah. 12:10 is corrupt. The [Greek] LXX text reads: ... ('they shall look upon me whom they have treated spitefully') .... The text in [John 19:37] does not follow the LXX; but it has also avoided the impossible ['me'] of the Hebrew text." - p. 195, John 2, Ernst Haenchen, Fortress Press, 1984.

 

The JPS translation of Zechariah 12:10 in Tanakh (NJV) also reveals that the text of Zechariah 12:10 is corrupt.

 

The NJV (New Jewish Version or Tanakh published by the Jewish Publication Society) is highly praised for its accuracy by noted Trinitarian Bible scholars Sakae Kubo and Walter F. Specht in their popular book So Many Versions? which analyzes and critiques modern Bibles:

 

"The NJV is a monument to careful scholarship .... It ranks as one of the best translations of the Hebrew Bible [the Old Testament] available." - p. 143, SMV, Zondervan Publ..

 

A footnote in Tanakh says that the Hebrew sometimes rendered "when they look upon" is "uncertain." Although it uses the pronoun "me," it renders Zechariah 12:10,

 

"they shall lament to Me about those who are slain, wailing over them as over a favorite son and showing bitter grief as over a first-born." - Jewish Publication Society, 1985.

 

But most important of all, compare John 19:37 (even in the KJV) where this scripture has been quoted by John! All translations show John here translating Zechariah. 12:10 as "They shall look upon him whom they pierced." So we have this Apostle and inspired Bible writer telling us plainly (and undisputed even by Trinitarian scholars) that Zechariah 12:10 should read: "They shall look upon him (not 'me')."

 

Therefore, Yahweh is speaking in Zechariah. 12:10 of someone else who will be pierced - not himself!

 

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ANSWER F

John 1:1 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Elohim, and the Word was Elohim”. (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

MANY MODERN ASSEMBLIES & CONGREGATIONS ARE USING SOME OLD OR NEW VERSION OR TRANSLATION OF THE HOLY SCRIPTURES. THESE ARE ALL NOT 100% FREE FROM BIAS, HUMAN ERROR, TYPOGRAPHICAL, GRAMMATICAL & TRANSLATION MISTAKES. 

 

THIS IS THE CAUSE OF CREATING DOCTRINES BASED ON TRANSLATIONS AND NOT ON THE ORIGINAL EXISTING COPIES OF THE HOLY SCRIPTURES THAT ARE ACCESSIBLE TO US IN HEBREW, GREEK AND ARAMAIC.

 

FOR CENTURIES WE WERE FORCED TO ACCEPT THE SO CALLED SCHOLARS AND BIBLE LANGUAGE TRANSLATORS, AS WE WERE AT THEIR MERCY. WE HAD TO TRUST THEM. 

 

᾿Εν(In) ἀρχῇ(beginning) ἦν(was) ὁ(the)  καὶ(and) ὁ(the) λόγος(Word) ἦν(was) πρὸς(toward) τὸν(the)  καὶ(and) θεὸς(god) ἦν(was) ὁ(the) λόγος.(Word.)

In the Beginning there was WORD (YESHUA) and the WORD was WITH GOD (with the Father) and the WORD was GOD...- John 1:1

 

New International Version
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

 

There were no complete Bibles in the English language before the 14th century. John Wycliffe (c. 1320-1384) was mainly responsible for the first such English Bible.

 

Now PLESE NOTE, the above scripture quoted at John 1:1 is NOT the exact and actual GOD BREATHED or GOD INSPIRED word and thought as was communicated by the Original Inspired writer in Greek Language.

 

Now in 2021, thanks to an Information Explosion and Prophet Daniel’s prophetic words coming true;

 

New Living Translation
But you, Daniel, keep this prophecy a secret; seal up the book until the time of the end, when many will rush here and there, and knowledge will increase." Daniel 12:4

 

The primary application of "knowledge increased" is in reference to people understanding the prophecies of the book of Daniel, however, many Bible scholars believe that this prophecy also applies to an increasing knowledge of science, medicine, travel, and technology. We are living in "The Information Age" making this sign seem even more obvious. Even the most skeptical mind must admit that knowledge is exploding in all directions. It is said that 80% percent of the world's total knowledge has been brought forth in the last decade and that 90% percent of all the scientists who have ever lived are alive today. 

 

Today thanks to the Internet, the Information Highway one can have access to unlimited books, Online libraries, literature and even to Interlinear Translations of the Greek New Testament with a word to word translation in English for us to; TO CHECK AND MAKE SURE if the English Translators of any Versions have been really accurate and faithful to the WORD TO WORD rendering of Elohim Yahweh’s Holy words and thoughts.

 

Nouns are words that describe people, places, or things. Here are some English nouns: book, person, chewing-gum, country, county, city, road, field, justice, peace, language, concept, man, woman, god, programmer, and linguist.

 

Articles are those little words in front of the noun. In English, there are two articles: "the" is the definite article, and "a" is the indefinite article. Greek has only one article - since there are 24 forms for it, they couldn't afford a second one. The Greek article is definite, and it is often translated "the", but it functions very differently from the English "the". 

 

PLEASE NOTE:

· Original Greek text lacks the article (in English, ‘the’) before the Greek word for ‘god’ (which is ‘theos’).

 

· Hence in some modern translations, at Luke 20:6 is translated as, ‘John was a prophet.’ That is because the Greek text lacks the article.”

 

There is no single translation that will clear up the confusion. Because all of the Translations and Versions in English language and all other languages to have, “Human Introduced Flaws” while translating from the “Original Copies of Elohim’s (God’s) Word”.

 

JOHN 1:1

Some translations say " ... and the Word was God.” But, the word for word in the original Greek does not say it exactly as it was translated in those versions.

 

Take a look at the Diaglott version for instance:

 

John 1:1 "In a beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and a god was the Word.

 

1:2 This was in a beginning with the God."

 

Also look at John 1:18 and compare the New America with the King James:

 

NAS John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

 

KJV John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

 

What do you conclude? If God (Theos in Greek, Elohim in Hebrew, the Almighty Father) always existed, how can He be begotten? Is the word "God" or "god"(mighty one - can refer to Yeshua)?

 

Look at Acts 28:6  "Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god."

 

Why is the same word from John 1:1 translated here as "a god”?

 

As many Bible students are aware, the words "a" and "an" (called indefinite articles) do not exist in the Greek language. If one wished to say "I saw a tree," in Greek it would be "I saw tree" and everyone would know the intent is "a" tree. Therefore a translator would automatically supply it. This is done everywhere in the New Testament where the English word "a" or "an" appears.

 

So in John 1:1. The text actually says "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and the Word was [a?] God." Should the translator supply the intended "a" or not?

 

That is the question. Contrary to many vocal claims on this issue, it is a sound and reasonable thing to do. C. H. Dodd, driving force of the NEB, acknowledges "As a word-for-word translation it cannot be faulted."

(Technical Papers for the Bible Translator, 28, Jan. 1977, page).

 

Notice that the translators of the King James Version had no hesitation in using "a god" in Acts 28:6 where the context makes it obvious. (It also belongs in John 10:33, as the logic of Jesus' (Yeshua’s) reply shows.)

 

A very good reason for adding "a" in John 1:1 is John 1:18, but the point is hidden in the King James Version. Today it is generally acknowledged that the better, earlier Greek manuscripts of this verse refer to Jesus as "the only begotten god" (see the NASB for example).

 

John there says no one has ever seen "God," but "the only begotten god, which is in the bosom of the Father," has appeared to declare what God is about. First it is clear that by "God" John means "the Father." Second it is clear that John has two gods in mind -- God himself, the unseen, and the son of God, Jesus, who in his own right is also a mighty being, "a god." Since John 1:18 distinguishes two mighty beings, it is apparent that John 1:1 also distinguishes two mighty beings.

 

REMEMBER IN THE BEGINNING I MENTIONED THAT THE ENGLISH TRANSLATION OF THE ORIGINAL BIBLE LANGUAGES WAS TRANSLATED ONLY IN 14^TH CENTURY

 

WHAT IF RECENT ARCHEOLOGICAL DISCOVERIES HAVE FOUND THE EARLIEST COPIES OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT?

 

What are the sahidic Coptic language translations of New Testament writings?

 

The Sahidic Coptic editions of the Greek New Testament were some of the earliest translations of the Greek of the New Testament. Coptic is not a widely known language these days—even among scholars of the New Testament. The Sahidic Coptic New Testament in English helps bridge the gap by providing a convenient English translation of the Coptic New Testament.

 

Sahidic was the leading dialect of pre-Islamic Coptic, and is the dialect in which most known Coptic texts are written. The first written instances of the dialect occurred around 300 A.D., including translations of Biblical texts. 

 

No one doubts the Sahidic Coptic version is among the most important of the early translations of the original Greek New Testament. Most scholars place the Sahidic Coptic translation no later than the fourth century and as early as the second (the same century of our earliest existing Greek manuscript of the New Testament: P52).

 

As such, the Sahidic Coptic manuscripts comprise a rich deposit of empirical evidence. They tell us what the early Greek texts might have looked like. They tell us how the Copts understood the text at the time of translation. In fact, the Sahidic Coptic translation was primarily intended to proclaim the gospel throughout Egypt where the Copts lived. This, then, was the text some of the earliest Christian missionaries used to first share the gospel in Egypt.

 

Fortunately, knowledge of this Sahidic Coptic evidence is not new. Unfortunately, popular-level access to legitimate New Testament scholarship on it is new. In fact, 2011 marks the first year a major academic publisher—Oxford University Press—published a work devoted solely to the Sahidic Coptic version’s varying uses of the Coptic word for “god.”

 

What about our controversial text, John 1:1c? So far, the best way to understand the Copts’ use of the indefinite article is that they were making an interpretive, qualitative distinction. This distinction was to describe the qualities of whatever god/entity was being referenced by the speaker, author, or both.

 

Thus, the Maltese population in Acts 28:6 were saying Paul possessed the qualities of “a god.” This fits well with how the Copts were probably understanding the text: descriptively. The population was not calling Paul a false god or a lesser divine god. Instead, the population was describing him as one characterized as having the qualities of “god” as they understood the gods.

 

Likewise, the best understanding of 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is that the author is referring to the qualities of the Christian God, even though the “man of lawlessness” is not the Christian God. As one scholar put it, “It is therefore preferable to understand the characterization as of someone who is so self-aggrandizing that he vaunts himself against all gods whatsoever, perceived or real.”3 Again, this complements how the Copts probably understood the text: descriptively. The “man of lawlessness” will not exult himself as a false god or a lesser divine god, but as one claiming the qualities of “god” (in this case, the Christian God).

 

The same category easily applies to John 1:1c. This qualitative/descriptive understanding makes the best sense within the opening of John’s Gospel. The Copts understood John to mean “the Word” possesses the same qualities or essence or character or god being (El) as the God of the Torah or Old Testament that is El Yahweh.

 

It is interesting to note that the Coptic language was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Yeshua’s earthly ministry, and the Sahidic dialect was an early literary form of the language. A significant fact concerning the Coptic language is that, unlike the Greek, it used an indefinite article ("a" or "an" in English).

 

The Sahidic Coptic translation DOES USE an indefinite article with the word 'god' in the final part of John 1:1 and when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: 'And the Word was a god.' 

 

KATA IѠϨANNHС

The Coptic Gospel of John 1:1-14

Digitalized and Translated by Lance Jenott (2003)

 

According to the Coptic text in G. Horner, The Coptic Version of the New Testament in the Southern Dialect, vol. III (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1911-1924) pp.2-4.

 

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1:1  ϨΝ ΤЄϨΟΥЄΙΤЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝϬΙΠϢΑϪЄ, ΑΥѠ ΠϢΑϪЄ

ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝΝΑϨΡΜ ΠΝΟΥΤЄ. ΑΥѠ ΝЄΥΝΟΥΤЄ ΠЄ ΠϢΑϪЄ

 

In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with God, and the Word was a God.

 

NOW LET US DO A SIMPLE EXERCISE

 

Here below is copy pasted the John 1:1 from the Greek Language. The English words of John 1:1 is translated from these Greek words:

 

  ᾿Εν   ἀρχῇ   ἦν   ὁ   λόγος,   καὶ   ὁ   λόγος    ἦν    πρὸς   τὸν    θεόν,  καὶ  θεὸς  ἦν  ὁ

 

1.  Open your Google Search Engine.

2.  Type Greek to English Language Translation

3.  In the Greek Box, carefully copy paste the above 16 Original Greek words of John 1:1

4.  Remember there has to be SPACE between each of the above 16 words.

5.  See for yourself, WITH WIDE OPEN EYES, what Google Translator which is a POWERFUL TRANSLATION TOOL (a machine), Not a human who can cheat. See how it translates John 1:1 from Greek to English.

 

Copy pasted here, the result of Google Translation of John 1:1 from Greek to English:

 

Greek Text as it is at John 1:1

᾿Εν   ἀρχῇ   ἦν   ὁ   λόγος,  καὶ   ὁ   λόγος    ἦν    πρὸς   τὸν    θεόν,  καὶ  θεὸς  ἦν  ὁ

 

Greek Transliteration in English

 

᾿En   archí   ín   o   lógos,  kaí   o   lógos    ín    prós   tón    theón,  kaí  theós  ín  o

 

Greek Translation in English

In the beginning the word, and the word to the god, and the divine

 

Many accurate Bible translations that render the ending of John 1:1 are shown below:

 

1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

 

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ANSWER G – (Two separate & different answers provided for same problem.)

At Video teaching timing, approximately at 35:20. Isaiah 43:11 Besides me there is NO SAVIOR

 

Answer G1

Christians and now even Hebrew Messianic’s like Sir Steve Berkson argue that Jesus (Yeshua) in flesh on Earth is Almighty El (God) Yahweh of Heaven, since he is said to be the Savior whereas Scriptures in the Old Testament says Yahweh is the only Savior (Isaiah 43:11; 45:21; Hosea 13:4). 

 

This argument overlooks the fact that although Yahweh is the only Savior he does use agents to accomplish his purposes. For instance, the Old Testament says that Yahweh used an Israelite named Othniel to deliver his people Israel. He is even called a savior! (Judges 3:9; Obadiah 1:21)

 

WOULD BE SO CRAZY AND ABSOLUTELY WRONG TO USE THE SAME FLAWED LOGIC AND CLAIM THAT SINCE THE ISRAELITE NAMED OTHNIEL WAS REFERRED TO AS SAVIOR, SO HE ALSO IS THE SAME AS YAHWEH. No. No one does that. Everyone understands when it comes to the Fleshly Human Othniel but not in the case of, in the Flesh Yahshua!!!!

The above shows that when it says that Yahweh is the only Savior it really means that he is the only Source of salvation and others can be used as Saviors but connected to the same source of salvation that is in Yahweh itself.

In reference with the above, even Yahshua (Jesus) is referred to as Savior.  Let’s read Acts 4:12 for another enlightening and eye opening understanding how the Messiah Yahshua being called as Savior does not conflict with Yahweh being earlier called as our only Savior too.

“There is salvation in none other, for neither is there any other name under heaven, that is given among men, by which we must be saved!" – Acts 4:12

FIRSTLY, please note that most of the above statements are made by Almighty Creator Yahweh long before the WORD or the LOGOS or the Messiah was born into Flesh as Son of Man and Son of God on Earth. So from a TIME STANDPOINT before Yahshua being born on Earth, all the Scripture references referring to Yahweh as Only One Savior in the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament or Tanakh) is 100% accurate.

SECONDLY, the confusion created by Trinitarians and Binatarians is that because Yahshua (Jesus) is called as Savior by Yahweh’s inspired word that too in the New Testament, they make the wrong claim that Yahshua is Yahweh.

We all know that the Almighty Creator resides in Heaven which is outside this earth and universe. The one who created the Box (Universe) is Outside the Box (Universe). So there is one and only one Yahweh as Savior from that Heavenly abode. But when Yahshua came on Earth as the only begotten Son of Yahweh, then as Son or Agent of Yahweh he was the Only Saviour on Earth.

Yahweh – Only Savior – From Heaven Domain
Yahshua – Only Savior – From Earth Domain

“There is salvation in none other, for neither is there any other name under heaven, that is given among men, by which we must be saved!" – Acts 4:12

See the above Emphasis of mine in the same Acts Scripture again. The answer is right in front of OUR eyes itself.

Keywords
Yahshua’s is the Saviors name UNDER HEAVEN. And AMONG MEN.

Yahweh, before sending his Son Yahshua thousands of years ago mentioned that at THAT MOMENT OF TIME, he Yahweh was the ONLY SAVIOR. This is so right. Isn’t it? Also this Saviors name is from THE HEAVENS ABOVE.

 

SECOND DIFFERENT AND MORE DETAILED ANSWER FOR SAME ABOVE QUESTION OF ISAIAH 43:11

 

Answer G2

It is logically fallacious to try to establish that two persons are one and the same just because they are referred to by the same title. Yet this is what a good percentage of Trinitarian or Binatarians arguments attempt to do.

 

For example, Trinitarians sometimes claim that because Yahweh states at Isaiah 43:11 that there is no savior besides Him then Yeshua must be Yahweh because Yeshua is our savior. However, this is a typical Trinitarian logical fallacy since it rips the scripture out of context and it causes a contradiction in God's (Elohim’s) Word.

 

The scriptures explicitly show that others can properly be called "saviors." Yahweh himself states that there were others who he personally sent as "saviors" to his people! (Judges 3:9, 15; 2 Kings 13:5; Nehemiah 9:27; Isaiah 19:20). Were these false saviors? Of course not! Does it negate Elohim Yahweh’s statement that he alone was the savior? No, Elohim Yahweh was simply speaking in an absolute sense. So others who act as savior are the agents "through" whom Yahweh brings salvation to his people. Likewise, Yahweh brings salvation through Yeshua ha Messiah.

 

The problem is that Trinitarians and Binatarians are ripping Isaiah.43:11 out of its context. Isaiah was comparing Elohim with false idols who cannot be true saviors. Once we see the context then we can easily reconcile it with the passages that show there were other "true" saviors. All these other saviors had been sent by Elohim Yahweh as his agents to bring about salvation for His people.

 

Yahweh used his representatives to save his people, but He "alone" was the Source and Originator of salvation! So others who act as savior are the agents "through" whom Elohim Yahweh brings salvation to his people. Likewise, Elohim brings salvation "through" Yeshua ha Messiah. Elohim sent Yeshua to save mankind as His greatest representative and final agent of our salvation.

 

Even the name Yeshua points to Elohim as the Source of salvation. It means "Yahweh Is Salvation" and thus honors the Father as the preeminent Savior. And Yeshua himself looked to Yahweh--his God (Elohim) and Father--as his own savior (Hebrews 5:7; John 12:27).

 

In fact, Yeshua is always presented as Yahweh’s SERVANT in Isaiah and Acts (Isaiah. 42:1; 52:13, cf. Acts. 3:13-26; 4:27). A servant cannot be the same as his master. Isaiah said the Messiah would be "anointed" by Yahweh and the writer of Acts recorded Yeshua himself admitting that he was this "anointed one" (Isaiah 61.1; Luke 4:18; Acts 4:27; 10:38). You cannot be Yahweh’s "anointed" and also be that same person. A person is "anointed" and "sent" by a superior (John 13:16). Yahweh is the Sender; Yeshua is the Sent One. Yahweh is the Anointer; Yeshua is the Anointed One or Messiah (Luke. 4:16-21; Psalms 2:2; Acts 4:27; 10:38). So, according to Isaiah Yeshua was not Yahweh, he was "anointed" and "sent" by Yahweh.

 

Every title or position that Yeshua has was given to him by a higher power, his father and God Yahweh (Matthew.28:18; 11:27; John. 5:22; 3:35). Even the title "savior" was a position that Yeshua had to be EXALTED to by El Yahweh (Acts 5:31; John.17:2). If Yeshua were the almighty why would he have to be "exalted" to the position of savior? Why would he have to have someone else save him?

 

Therefore, Yahweh God is the author of salvation, but others served as His representatives and instruments or means by which Yahweh caused his plan for salvation to be carried out. Similarly, Messiah is Elohim’s foremost agent for salvation.

Jude 25 makes this clear: "to [the] only God our Savior through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, might and authority for all past eternity and now and into all eternity. Amen." NIV, NJB

 

Every explicit scripture shows that at every point of his existence Yeshua has a El over him and he was less than the Almighty, the El Shaddai (Micah 5:2-4; John 14:28; 20:17; Mark 13:32; Romans 15:6; Revelation 3:2,12). At the highest position he will ever attain, Yeshua is still "subject" to Yahweh the same way we are "subject" to him (1Corinthians 15:27,28).

 

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ANSWER H

AT VIDEO TEACHING TIMING APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES

 

GENESIS 19:24 Yahweh throwing Fire on Sodom from heaven. Two Yahwehs?

 

Genesis 19:24 (King James Bible}
Then the LORD (Yahweh) rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD (Yahweh) out of heaven;

Trinitarians and Binatarians love this above Scripture. This is their proof text that there are two Yahweh’s or two Elohim or two God’s mentioned here in one Sentence or Statement. 

Warning, this is going to get complicated now. Their first argument & conclusion is that the first part of Genesis 19:24 is Yahweh speaking from an Earthly perspective and the second part of the same scripture is Yahweh speaking from Heaven. The second is that first name Yahweh refers to Yahshua (Jesus) on Earth and the second name Yahweh refers to Almighty God Yahweh in Heaven. Thirdly according to Binatarian theorists, therefore these two different persons with God's personal name show the "plural personality" of that one God. (Genesis 1:26)

Nothing Trinitarian here……

There are absolutely no three identities or beings or persons or personalities, not even 3 names mentioned at Genesis 19:24, so using this scripture as a Trinitarian belief is absurd and wrong. So those who do this are surely wrong. So just ignore this and we move ahead. 

TRANSLATION TROUBLES

Even if we assume this to be a correct translation, Genesis 19:24 (King James Bible), it seems obvious that it can be honestly interpreted as a simple repetition of the same person's name.  That is, the very same person who produced the brimstone and fire, Yahweh, is also the one who rained it down upon these cities.

Similar name repeating parallels in Scripture: "And King Solomon gave to the Queen of Sheba all that she desired, whatever she asked besides what was given her by the bounty of King Solomon." - 1 Kings 10:13, RSV.  (Cf. KJV.)  To rephrase the above scripture, ("King Solomon gave her everything she asked him for, besides the presents he had already planned.")  Even though this is a very literal translation of the original manuscripts and the one personal name of King Solomon is actually used twice, we surely don't believe there were two different persons making up the one King Solomon!  

Another honest explanation for Gen. 19:24 given by Trinitarian scholars themselves is that the use of the phrase in question ("from the LORD out of heaven") is in doubt.  The very Trinitarian New American Bible, 1970 ed. (Catholic) encloses the last part of Gen. 19:24 in brackets: "the LORD rained down sulphurous fire upon Sodom and Gomorrah [from the LORD out of heaven]."  And the preface to the NAB tells us: "Doubtful readings ... appear within brackets." - p. 45, St. Joseph Edition.

        
That is why these Trinitarian Bible translations have actually omitted that doubtful portion: NEB, REB, AT, Mo, LB, and GNB.  (E.g. "then the LORD rained down fire and brimstone from the skies on Sodom and Gomorrah." -New English Bible.)  And others, like the NJB, have rendered it "[Jehovah] rained down on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire of his own sending."

 

Modern Day more accurate translations clear this complication and confusion:

 

Genesis 19:24 - New International Version (NIV)
Then the LORD rained down burning sulfur on Sodom and Gomorrah--from the LORD out of the heavens.

 

Genesis 19:24 - Modern English Version (MEV)

²⁴ Then the Lord rained brimstone and fire on Sodom and Gomorrah. It was from the Lord out of heaven.

 

Genesis 19:24 – New American Standard Bible (NASB)

 24 Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven,

 

Genesis 19:24 – New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures 2013 (Online Study Edition)

²⁴ Then Jehovah made it rain sulfur and fire on Sodʹom and Go·morʹrah—it came from Jehovah, from the heavens.q

 

A Few Cross References and things get clearer.

Deuteronomy 29:23

23 sulfur and salt and burning, so that its whole land will not be sown or sprout, nor will any vegetation spring up in it, like the overthrow of Sodʹom and Go·morʹrah, Adʹmah and Ze·boiʹim, which Jehovah overthrew in his anger and in his wrath—

Luke 17:29

29 But on the day that Lot went out of Sodʹom, it rained fire and sulfur from heaven and destroyed them all.

2 Peter 2:6

6 And by reducing the cities of Sodʹom and Go·morʹrah to ashes, he condemned them, setting a pattern for ungodly people of things to come.

ANSWER I

Today “many peoples” out of all nations are streaming to Yahweh’s house of worship. (Isaiah 2:2, 3) Confirming this, Revelation 15:4 states: “Who shall not fear thee, Oh Yahweh, and glorify thy name? for thou only art holy: for all nations shall come and worship before thee; for thy judgments are made manifest”.

 

Zechariah chapter 14 describes what follows. In the near future, the bad attitude of the majority of the people on earth will reach a climax as they gather for the last time to wage war against spiritual Jerusalem—the Covenanted representatives on earth of the heavenly Jerusalem. Then Yahweh will act. As a Warrior-Elohim (God), Similar to the Elohim who used to fight wars for his chosen people from the front, he “will certainly go forth and war against those nations” who dare to make this attack.—Zechariah 14:2, 3.

 

THE PROBLEM IS CREATED IN YOUR MIND SIR STEVE. YOU ARE INSISTING AND IMPLYING THAT EITHER ONE OF THEM HAS TO BE INVOLVED IN THE FINAL AWE INSPIRING BATTLE DAY OF YAHWEH. WHY? YAHWEH CAN FIGHT FROM THE HEAVENS AND HIS DIVINE REPRESENTATIVE AND KING OF KINGS YESHUA CAN FIGHT ON MOUNT OF OLIVES.

 

Imagine a Scenario, where your Son Stephen is fighting a battle let’s say in India. Then as his Father would you not support him in getting all the necessary modern technology from your country USA? Just like Yahweh the Father cannot come to the Earth, let’s say for some reason you cannot come to India. So won’t you support and fight in your Son’s battle in India from USA? Or you would stay idle and not want to help in any way possible? The same situation is PLAYING out (used your words) at Zechariah Chapter 14 in Verses 2 and 3.

 

The above situation of both Father and Son fighting all the enemies, together on the Day of Yahweh is portrayed prophetically at Psalms 110.

 

Psalms 110:1          

Yahweh said unto my Sovereign, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

 

Comment: Please note, that in verse 1 Yeshua is sitting at the right hand of Yahweh.

 

Psalms 110:2          

Yahweh shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies.

 

Psalms 110:3          

Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power, in the beauties of holiness from the womb of the morning: thou hast the dew of thy youth.

 

Psalms 110:4          

Yahweh hath sworn, and will not repent; Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.

 

Psalms 110:5          

Yahweh at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath.

 

Comment: Please note a big change in position and power has happened here in scripture. (Yet to happen in the near future on the day of Yahweh). Now Yahweh is sitting at the right hand of Yeshua. This is like denoting that ALL POWER AND AUTHORITY IS NOW GIVEN TO YESHUA WITH FULL BACKING OF ALMIGHTY YAHWEH, but from the Heavens above.

 

So when Zechariah 14:3 gets fulfilled on Planet Earth, yes, Yahweh as the Warrior El of the Old Testament will give support from the Heavens above (without leaving his holy area) to his Son Yeshua who will be fighting all the enemies on Planet Earth.

 

Zechariah 14:3      

“Then shall Yahweh go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle”.

 

YES. In Verse 3 it is speaking about Yahweh fighting from the Heavens.

 

Zechariah 14:4      

“And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south”.

 

YES. The feet of Yeshua will stand on the Mountain of Olives and he will fight this battle against his enemies on Earth.

 

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ANSWER J

Who is the, ONE "TRUE EL (GOD)"? If ANYONE Else is or may be called 'El God or god or Mighty one' in Scripture, Are They Always a False god? Who is the, one Almighty "True God (El)"?

 

GENERAL WARNING: This particular article or answer can get really deep and confusing and complicated. It all bogs down to one word. KNOW or KNOWING. As Rabbi Steve has repeatedly & regularly emphasized in many of his video teachings, that to KNOW someone is the most INTIMATE & DEEP RELATIONSHIP a person can have. In 16^th Century British English, to know someone meant to know the opposite person sexually. Hence we have older English translations such as the KJV, translating Genesis 4:1 as, “And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from Yahweh”.

 

But in today’s modern English Translation Bibles the same scripture you will find translated boldly and clearly as,” Adam made love to his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain. She said, "With the help of the LORD I have brought forth a man." New International Version OR “Now Adam had sexual relations with his wife, Eve, and she became pregnant. When she gave birth to Cain, she said, “With the LORD’s help, I have produced a man!” New Living Translation OR “And Adam had relations with his wife Eve, and she conceived and gave birth to Cain. “With the help of the LORD I have brought forth a man,” she said”. Berean Study Bible

 

Today, TO KNOW some person or TO KNOW GOD (ELOHIM) is equivalent as Rabbi Steve says, it’s a RELATIONSHIP thing. How much information do you have about that person or El? How long do you know him? How much qualitative & quantitative time have you spent time in getting to know each other? How much knowledge you have about that person or El? How much of that knowledge is, “Accurate Knowledge” or Truth?

 

FOR EXAMPLE:

I know or have been knowing or searching or seeking the Information, Facts, Knowledge, Truth, Wisdom and Scriptures about the Creator, the Almighty Yahweh in the Bible for the past approximate 40 long years. SO I CAN SAY THAT I KNOW HIM SUFFICIENTLY.

 

But Rabbi Sir Steve I have come to KNOW across just since January 2021 (only 3 months) and that too just through his digital informative interactions over the internet. SO I KNOW VERY LESS ABOUT STEVE.

 

WITH THE ABOVE THOUGHT AND INTRODUCTION, I PROCEED FURTHER INTO THIS DEEP TOPIC:

 

John 4:24 tells us we must worship God (El) in truth (aletheia in the Greek text). There can be no doubt what "truth" means here. It can be properly contrasted here with "false or falsehood." If we are not worshiping El correctly (in truth), then we are worshiping him falsely. There are only two choices here. This is confirmed by John 17:3 and 2 Thessalonians 1:8, 9 where we are told that it means everlasting life to us to KNOW the true God (El) and Yeshua, and, conversely, it means eternal destruction to not know God (El) and obey Jesus (Yeshua). Obviously, if we "know" Yahweh and Yeshua falsely, we cannot worship them in truth. We must know them accurately!

 

Language and Linguistics and Semantics

Therefore, if we should see, for example, someone being called the 'true prophet,' that should mean that the person so described is truly a prophet. In either case this certainly does not have to mean that all other prophets must be false! Even if it was said that this one was the "only true Prophet," we would probably consider him the only prophet in the highest sense of the word, but that still would not make all other prophets of God (Elohim), false prophets!

 

TRUE PROVERB, DOES IT MEAN OTHER PROVERS ARE FALSE?

Or, since the Proverb quoted at 2 Peter 2:22,”But it is happened unto them according to the true (alethous)proverb, The dog is turned to his own vomit again; and the sow that was washed to her wallowing in the mire." the true Proverb," does that really mean that all other Proverbs must be false? NO.

 

TRUE TABERNACLE, DOES IT MEAN THAT THE EARTHLY TABERNACLE WAS FALSE?

At Hebrews 8:2 we see Jesus (Yeshua) as "a minister in the sanctuary [in heaven], and in the true (alethinos - Young's; Vine) tabernacle" - NASB. Here again, although the heavenly "tabernacle" is the "true tabernacle," that does not mean that the earthly tabernacle was a false tabernacle. As W. E. Vine puts it when discussing Hebrews 8:2,

 

"not that the wilderness Tabernacle was false, but that it was a weak and earthly copy of the Heavenly [cf. Heb. 9:24]." - p. 1171, An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1984.

 

Therefore, the heavenly tabernacle was the ONLY TRUE Tabernacle. There could be other, earthly, tabernacles which were still not false tabernacles. Or as Hebrews 9:24 puts it:

 

"For Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands [the earthly tabernacle], a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself" - NASB.

 

No, just because the heavenly tabernacle is the true one, does not make holy tabernacles on earth false tabernacles. They were merely tabernacles in a lesser sense of the word - "in the image of" the only true Tabernacle (in heaven)!

 

“Messiah proclaims Himself [‘the bread the true’ - 'the true bread'] (John vi. 32), not suggesting thereby that the bread which Moses gave was not also ‘bread of heaven’ (Psalms. cv. 40), but only that it was such in a secondary inferior degree; it was not food in the highest sense, inasmuch as it did not nourish up unto eternal life those that ate it (John vi. 49). He is [‘the vine the true’ - 'the true vine'] (John xv. I), not thereby denying that Israel also was God's (Elohim’s) vine (Ps. lxxx. 8; Jer. 21), but affirming that none except Himself realized this name, and all which this name implied, to the full (Hos. x. I; Deut. xxxii. 32)” - p. 29, Trench’s Synonyms of the New Testament.  [Thanks to 'Reality.']

 

Perhaps the best illustration of this would be the use of the term "Christ" (or 'Messiah' in Hebrew). As far as Believers are concerned there is only one "true Messiah," our Savior, Yeshua! We know that the Bible has also warned us about "false Christ’s. Or “false messiahs"

 

However, less well-known is the fact that Almighty El Yahweh himself appointed King Saul (1 Samuel. 24:7) and King David (2 Samuel 23:1), among many others, as His Savior or Messiah. "Christ" (or "Messiah" in Hebrew) simply means "anointed" or "anointed one," and those who properly bear that title are those who have been chosen by the Almighty Creator for a special assignment. This included the high priests, prophets, and righteous kings of Israel. They all had the title "Christ" (Messiah) or "Christ of God" (Messiah of El). In the ancient Greek of the Septuagint Bible. Why, even the foreign king, Cyrus, was called the Christ (christw) (Messiah) of Elohim (Isaiah 45:1, Septuagint) because the Almighty Creator chose him for a special assignment!

 

So, even though we would say that Yeshua is the ONLY TRUE MESSIAH and that there have been many false Christ’s or Messiah’s who have arisen, it still would not be proper to insist that any person other than Yeshua who is called "Christ" (Messiah) or "a Christ" (a Messiah) must be a false Christ or Messiah!

 

In effect then we would then be saying that King David, Moses, and innumerable others chosen by the Almighty Yahweh to do his will were false Christ’s and false Messiah’s!

 

Now One True God (El) is Yahweh does that then make Yeshua who is also called a Mighty God, a false god or worse others connect these dots to say that Yeshua in Flesh on Earth – Mighty God (El) is the same Yahweh in Spirit in Heaven. IS THIS ACCURATE KNOWING?

 

So, for God (El) to say that he is the true (alethinos) God (El) does not demand that all others called 'god' (El)  or 'gods' (El’s) are false gods (El’s) as a few Trinitarian apologists imply. The inspired scriptures when speaking of faithful angels, prophets, God-appointed judges, kings, and magistrates clearly calls them "gods"(El’s) on occasion. These are called "gods" (El’s) in the sense of faithful servants of God (El), representing the true God. (El).

 

Of course "God" (El) [theos] (the "Most High God" - Luke 8:28; Psalms 82:6; Luke 6:35[2] - and the "God of gods" - Deuteronomy. 10:17; Ps. 136:2) was distinguished from "a god" [theos] by the use of the definite article ("the") in the original languages

Deuteronomy 10:17         

“For Yahweh your Elohim is Elohim of elohim, and Sovereign of sovereigns, a great El, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:” (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

(Also remember that capital letters were not used to distinguish things in the original manuscripts of the Bible as they are in modern English Bibles: God, Christ, etc.)

 

So, the title "the true God" (El) does not have to mean that there are no others who may be called "gods" (El’s) or "a god" in a subordinate but righteous sense. It is, however, an exclusive title for God (El), the Most High, only true God (El), Yahweh. And clearly it refers exclusively to the Father! No one else is THE God (THE El) or THE True God (THE True El)! (Compare Psalms. 86:10; 2 Kings 19:19; Isaiah. 37:16.)

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ANSWER K

Isaiah 45:5 (Similar: Isaiah 45:18,)

“I am Yahweh, and there is none else, there is no Elohim beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:” (RSB 04^th Edition)

 

Deuteronomy 32:39         

“See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no mighty one with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand”. (RSB 04th Edition)

 

Deuteronomy 32:39

"See now that I myself am he! There is no god besides me. I put to death and I bring to life, I have wounded and I will heal, and no one can deliver out of my hand. (New International Version)

 

The Claim & Concern raised by Rabbi Steve Berkson is that at above Scriptures like at Isaiah 45:5 and others, where Yahweh so clearly and so simply says that, “there is no Elohim (God) beside me:” and at the same time we know of so many, Scriptures where Yeshua (Jesus) is referred to as Mighty God (El) or Mighty One or plain simple Elohim or God at John 1:1. So in childlike innocence, he so simply, “connects the dots”, meaning he connects NO ELOHIM with Yeshua is ELOHIM too. So Yeshua is Yahweh.

 

Then he ENTERS INTO PRIVATE MODE OF INTERPRETATION.

He plainly admits that, he does not know the answer, he has no idea, he has no scriptural answer, this is my understanding, this is my feeling, there is no middle ground, there is no other solution, and even he makes a DAMNING ABSOLUTE STATEMENT which he has made CONDITIONAL.  Sir Steve repeatedly says that IF Yeshua of the New Testament is NOT the same YAHWEH of the Old Testament, and then not only he, but we all have to throw out Yeshua and throw out the New Testament.

This conditional statement, that IF so and so, then Yeshua is false and New Testament is false is a very DISTASTEFUL STATEMENT coming from a Rabbi of your Stature and Experience. But it’s your personal remark and personal walk with Master Yeshua. May Yahweh rebuke you.

 

RABBI SIR STEVE BERKSON, YOU HAVE WRONGLY VENTURED ACCIDENTALLY, OR UNKOWINGLY OR INADVERTENTLY OR IGNORANTLY INTO PRIVATE INTERPRETATION OF ELOHIM’S SCRIPTURE.

 

 "And so we have the prophetic word made more sure, to which you do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star arises in your hearts. But know this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation." [2 Peter 1:19, 20 NAS] 

 

No Other god/God - Deuteronomy. 32:39

 

IN ALL OF SUCH SCRIPTURAL SITUATIONS, MAJORITY OF THE TIMES CONTEXT PROVIDES THE SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS:

 

God (YHWH) here has been consistently speaking of Israel’s love affair with false gods. Obviously none of these are acceptable to the Almighty Creator Yahweh - none of these are “with” Him nor are anything compared to the ONE TRUE ALMIGHTY EL (GOD). So it is probable that the verse in question is speaking in relation to false gods only.

 

This does not mean that the Almighty El Shaddai Yahweh does not call God (El) -appointed persons (including men and angels) ‘gods.’ Or El or Elohim.

 

The majority, if not all, recognized scholars (mostly Trinitarian, of course) admit this. These include scholars from the early centuries of Christendom until now. Some of those I have found are:

 

"In the language of the OT ... rulers and judges, as deputies of the heavenly King, could be given the honorific title ‘god’ ... or be called ‘son of God’.” - Footnote for Psalms 82:1.

 

And, in the footnote for Psalms. 45:6, this Trinitarian study Bible tells us: “In this psalm, which praises the [Israelite] king ..., it is not unthinkable that he was called ‘god’ as a title of honor (cf. Isa. 9:6).” - The NIV Study Bible, Zondervan, 1985

 

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, tells us:

 

“The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Psalms. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s (Elohim’s) judgment as ‘sons of the Most High’. In context of the Psalms the men in question have failed to do this.... On the other hand, Yeshua fulfilled the role of a true judge as a ‘god’ and ‘son of the Most High’.” - Vol. 3, p. 187.

 

The highly respected (and highly Trinitarian) W. E. Vine tells us:

 

“The word [theos, ‘god’ or ‘God’] is used of Divinely appointed judges in Israel, as representing God in His authority, John 10:34” - p. 491, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words.

 

B. W. Johnson's People's New Testament says for John 10:34-36:

 

"Is it not written in your law. In Psalms. 82. I said, Ye are gods? It was there addressed to judges. Christ's argument is: If your law calls judges gods, why should I be held guilty of blasphemy for saying that I am the Son of God? Sanctified. Set apart." -

And Barnes’ Notes tells us in commenting on John 10:34, 35:

 

The scripture cannot be broken. See Matthew 5:19. The authority of the Scripture is final; it cannot be set aside. The meaning is,

 

‘If, therefore, the Scripture uses the word "god" as applied to magistrates, it settles the question that it is right to apply the term to those in office and authority. If applied to them, it may be to others in similar offices. It cannot, therefore, be blasphemy to use this word as applicable to a personage so much more exalted than mere magistrates as the Messiah.’ -Barnes' Notes on the New Testament

 

Young’s Analytical Concordance of the Bible, Eerdmans, 1978 Reprint, “Hints and Helps to Bible Interpretation”:

 

“65. GOD - is used of any one (professedly) MIGHTY, whether truly so or not, and is applied not only to the true God, but to false gods, magistrates, judges, angels, prophets, etc., e.g. - Exod. 7:1; 15:11; 21:6; 22:8, 9;...Ps. 8:5; 45:6; 82:1, 6; 97:7, 9...John 1:1; 10:33, 34, 35; 20:28....”

 

Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, Abingdon, 1974 printing,

 

“430. [elohim]. el-o-heem’; plural of 433; gods in the ordinary sense; but spec. used (in the plur. thus, esp. with the art.) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, ... x (very) great, judges, x mighty.” - p. 12, “Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary.”

 

The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, 1979, Hendrickson, p. 43:

 

Elohim [‘gods’]: “a. rulers, judges, either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power.... b. divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels.... c. angels Ps. 97 7 ...”

 

The Trinitarian New American Bible, St. Joseph ed., 1970, says in a footnote for Psalms. 8:6:

 

“The angels: in Hebrew, elohim, which is the ordinary word for ‘God’ or ‘the gods’; hence the ancient versions generally understood the term as referring to heavenly spirits [angels].”

 

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ANSWER L

Isaiah 44:24

“Thus saith Yahweh, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am Yahweh that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;” (RSB 04^TH Edition)

 

Isaiah 44:24 - What is meant when God Yahweh said, "I ALONE stretched out the heavens; when I made the earth"? (GNT)

 

The Bible clearly shows that the Father alone is the source of all creation. And His first creation (the only direct creation by Him), His only-begotten son, is the channel through whom He caused all the rest of creation to be. "His son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through [dia] whom he made the world." - Hebrews. 1:2. "All things came into being through [dia] him.... The world was made through [dia] him" - John 1:3, 10.

 

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth." - Colossians. 1:14-16

 

So what is meant when God Yahweh said, "I alone stretched out the heavens; when I made the earth"? - Isaiah 44:24 (GNT)

 

There is no contradiction between Isaiah saying Yahweh alone was the Creator and Colossians saying Yeshua was the agent for the Creator. In Isaiah 44:24 Yahweh is spoken of in an active sense—the Creator. But in Colossians, and everywhere else, the Messiah Yeshua is only the passive agent of the only Creator. God Yahweh is the *only one* who creates, but he uses his son as a “master worker” a “Co-Creator”.

 

The CONTEXT of Isaiah is not addressing the issue of whether Yahweh used someone else in creation or not. The CONTEXT was a comparison between the true Creator and false Gods.  BDB lexicon on page 94 gives one definition of the Hebrew BAD (alone) as that of “acting independently.” In this sense Yahweh needed no assistance from the false Gods in the context to create. But Messiah Yeshua’s activity in creation is never described as acting independently.

 

Yahweh many times says he does something “alone” and yet we find that he used humans and angels to actually do the work.

 

BDB lexicon lists the use of BAD in Isaiah 63:3 where Yahweh indicates that he “alone” acted when He exacted retribution upon Edom. But, it was not Yahweh who personally punished these people but He used men as agents. So, is there a contradiction here? Or does it just mean that Yahweh as the SOURCE of retribution?!!

 

Deuteronomy 32:12 says: “Yahweh alone (BADAD) kept leading him.” Was Yahweh the “only one” leading Israel? Exodus 32:32-34 says that Yahweh used Moses and an angel to lead Israel! (cf. 1 Samuel 9:16; 13:13-14; 2 Samuel 5:1-2). Again, there is no contradiction here. Yahweh used his representatives to lead his people, but He “alone” was the SOURCE of direction!

 

At Ezekiel 36:33, 36 Yahweh says “I myself” will build the cities of Israel after the exile. Did He personally rebuild them or did His people do the work at His direction?

 

All these acts were done by Yahweh’s permission and authority alone, but it was others who carried them out.

 

Daniel 4:30 says the king built Babylon himself. Did King Nebuchadnezzar literally build Babylon by himself? No! But rather he was credited as its ORIGINATOR. It was built by his authority and no other’s.

 

So, the use of the term, “alone” and “by myself” does not necessarily mean that Yahweh did not use some representative to actually perform the action.

 

The context of Isaiah is on Yahweh being the “author” or “originator” of the creation, in contrast with the false idol gods the nation of Israel were getting involved with. Yahweh is the true source of all life and all things. He alone deserves the honor and worship of his creation, and not the false idol gods.

 

Logically, semantically, and contextually there is no reason that Yahweh cannot be said to be the “Sole Creator,” and yet still have delegated the actual work to an intermediary or representative. Since Yahweh was the Source of the power, and the sole designer, he indeed could say “I alone have created all things,” even though the Bible does clearly teach that he created the heavens and the earth THROUGH his *Son* and “master worker” in heaven! (John 1:3; Colossians 1:15- 16; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 1:2; Proverbs 8:30).

 

Yahweh is alone the source of all things, the one alone from which the stretching out the heavens and the laying of the foundations of the earth comes. No other has such an authority or ability within himself, including Yeshua. Nevertheless, God (Elohim) did grant Yeshua the power and authority performs these tasks.

 

So, there is absolutely no dilemma concerning these two statements. In his role as the Creator, and sole author of the creation, Yahweh indeed *alone* created the systems of things, through the agency of Yeshua, his “master worker.” (Proverbs 8:30) Here we see that Yeshua calls the earth “his,” or Yahweh’s, and not “mine.”

 

Whether the word “other” is added to Colossians 1 makes absolutely no difference. The fact is that EVERY verse mentioning Yeshua’s role in creation actually proves that he is NOT the Creator. The Bible always makes it clear that God Yahweh created “THROUGH” (DIA) the Messiah Yeshua, and it is never said that Yeshua created!! The Greek text *always* presents Yeshua as the intermediate *agent* or “master worker” who worked under Yahweh’s direction (Colossians 1:16; Hebrew 1:2; John 1:3; Proverbs 8:30). Correct translations make this clear: NKJV, NASB, ASV, WEB, NAB, NJB, NIV, and NRSV.

 

Yeshua always clearly states that he “can do nothing of myself” and “is not able to do anything from himself” (John 5:19, 30; 6:38). Yeshua must always be *given* power or authority! (Matthew 28:18; 11:27; John 5:22, 25, 26; 17:2; 3:35; 2 Peter 1:17). Yeshua says the Father had to *grant* him the power to give life (John.5:26). The Son does not naturally possess the ability to give life as the creator does. 

TEACHINGS PROPOSED BY RABBI STEVE IN PART 11 WHICH I DO AGREE TO:

ü  The Almighty El Yahweh was present in the beginning of Genesis ONLY before Sin entered the human world. El Yahweh will Tabernacle or Tent or Live with Holy Humankind ONLY after Revelation 21:3 getting fulfilled in Millennium.

 

ü  Totally & absolutely agree without a Shadow of doubt that NO ONE HAS EVER SEEN THE ALMIGHTY YAHWEH OF HEAVEN. ALSO NO ONE HAS HEARD ALMIGHTY EL YAHWEH’S VOICE. His pure voice or vision will kill us imperfect, sinful and unclean humans. If we cannot approach close to the BALL OF FIRE – THE STAR THAT THE CREATED SUN IS, then we humans because of our sinful state will get OBLITERATED if we physically approach the CREATOR of the mighty Sun.

 

ü  Totally and absolutely agree, that all the Events where it says that Yahweh spoke or Yahweh was present in some form, from Genesis 1 till Revelation 21 it was the WORD or LOGOS or the PLAN or the AGENT or the DIVINE REPRESENTATIVE or the MIGHTY EL  Yeshua (Isaiah 9:6 or John 1:1) or the SON OF EL Yahweh. As part of the 2 divine identities in the Plural Elohim of Genesis 1:26, “And Elohim said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:” (RSB 04^th Edition)

  

ü  YES. The Analogy and Metaphor of the Father and Son discussing in detail and very much in pre historic and pre creation advance is appropriately accurate. Yahweh, who knows the end from the beginning, knew every possibility and probability that would happen. He knew in his perfect divine wisdom that sin and death would enter the universe due to choice. And hence this project was of Yeshua as everything was created through him being the WORD, the LOGOS, the MIGHTY ONE, the PLAN OF YAHWEH, the MIGHTY EL, the SON OF GOD (EL) etc.