PLEASE NOTE
The Original Article of, Who was Jesus? Is in black color font as it
was. My remarks, queries, questions, addendums, statements, asking for
attention and my serious study markings are in Red and Purple colors
and in Bookman Old Style font.
Any statements with the above characteristics are the personal comments
and study remarks of Mr. Denzil Dias who is an UNBIASED Student of the
Scriptures (Gods Holy Word as in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek).
Not a member of any church. Seriously searching for the
1 True Christian Church having 100% Teachings and Doctrines from the ORIGINAL
SCRIPTURES OF THE BIBLE AND NOT FROM MAN MADE ERRING TRANSLATIONS AND VERSIONS
OF ANY LANGUAGE.
Who Was Jesus?
While
Jesus was human in the fullest sense, He was also more than simply human—for He
was, in fact, the divine Son of God with all that name implies.
“He
was, in fact, the divine Son of God With
all that name implies.”
The first part of the above sentence mentions a FACT: Jesus was the
divine Son of God. No argument here.
In continuation the Author of this
article takes the liberty and tries to add, something more to the status
and title of “Son of God” over here. I have given emphasis to the second part
of the above statement, “with all that name implies” in
bold for emphasis. Cause the author is trying to say, that something more is
IMPLIED in the title of, “Son of God”.
FIRST
Let’s see what’s the meaning or
definition of the word, Implies or Implied.
To imply is to hint
at something, but to infer is to make an educated guess. The speaker does the
implying, and the listener does the inferring. Continue
reading... The verb imply comes from a Latin word meaning
“enfold or entangle” but has come to mean “to hint at.”
In fewer, simpler words, Imply means
to:
·
Hint
·
Make an educated guess
·
Imply comes from Latin meaning “enfold or entangle”
So if we remain alert to the wordings in the
English language, the writer is openly admitting that he is going to
introduce his personal HINTS or his EDUCATED GUESSES or better he is going to
ENTANGLE something.
Indeed,
as we have seen, He was the Creator God made flesh.
Here comes the
implied (see meaning above) human GUESS, that He (Jesus)
was the Creator God (Yahweh) made flesh.
Was it so difficult
or impossible for the Almighty God Yahweh the Original Author and Divine Inspiration giver to direct 40
writers but NOT EVEN ONE writer to plainly and simply and clearly write in his
HOLY WRIT in Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek the above words that the writer is
hinting at.
If this was so, then Almighty God Yahweh would have instructed his
divinely inspired 40 writers to seal these words: Yehoshua (Jesus) My Son is ME itself. I Yahweh the Creator, the
Almighty God of the Old Covenant, has come in Human Flesh as Yehoshua (Jesus)
in the New Covenant. In Heaven I Yahweh am Almighty God in the Spirit and then
I became Human Flesh as Son of God Yehoshua (Jesus) the Twin God of me on
planet earth.
If the above seems
too long, then where in the whole Hebrew,
Aramaic and Greek copies of the Holy Bible, do we have any crystal clear
reference where Almighty God Yahweh (YHWH) says that, “He was the Creator God made
flesh.” In Jesus.
VERY
IMPORTANT NOTE:
The 66 little books of the Bible have
been directly inspired and authored by Almighty God Yahweh. No argument on
this. But please be aware, that the actual autographa (original writings of
these all 66 little books called the Bible) do NOT exist today. Not even 1
Original book of the Bible has been found by Archaeologist’s till date today.
All the original hand written and God
inspired 66 books of the Bible have totally disappeared from the face of the
earth. Why? No one knows. Let’s say only God knows. But he has not disclosed this
facet of the truth. The Bible does not answer this question directly, Neighter
does it throw any light on its disappearance. So always remember when any
Confusion or Complication or Contradiction appears in God’s holy and sacred
words, most of the times it gets clear on comparing the earliest copies of the
Holy Writ in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek languages.
Inadvertently or Ignorantly or even due
to human Imperfections and many times due to direct Intervention, humans have
either added or removed something or some word or some flavor or have added
some emphasis to God’s Holy Word in the many translations and versions of the
Holy Bible.
Even Almighty God Yahweh (YHWH) knew this
was bound to happen in the distant future hence the warning and curse at
Revelation 22:18, 19. - New Living Translation “And if anyone removes any of the
words from this book of prophecy, God will remove that person's share in the
tree of life and in the holy city that are described in this book.”
MANY MODERN CHURCHES ARE USING SOME MODERN VERSION OR TRANSLATION OF
THE HOLY SCRIPTURES. THESE ARE ALL NOT 100% FREE FOR BIAS, HUMAN ERROR OR
TYPOGRAPHICAL OR GRAMMATICAL MISTAKES. THIS IS THE CAUSE OF CREATING DOCTRINES BASED ON TRANSLATIONS AND NOT
ON THE ORIGINAL EXISTING COPIES OF THE HOLY BIBLE THAT ARE ACCESSIBLE TO US.
And when
His human life was over, He returned to the divine glory He shared with the
Father from eternity past.
“In the beginning was
the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God” (John 1:1).
There were no complete Bibles
in the English language before the 14th century. John
Wycliffe (c. 1320-1384) was mainly responsible for the first such English
Bible.
Now PLESE
NOTE, the above scripture quoted at John 1:1 is NOT the exact and actual GOD
BREATHED or GOD INSPIRED word and thought as was communicated by the Original
Inspired writer in Greek Language.
FOR
CENTURIES WE WERE FORCED TO ACCEPT THE SO CALLED SCHOLARS AND BIBLE LANGUAGE
TRANSLATORS, AS WE WERE AT THEIR MERCY. WE HAD TO TRUST THEM.
Now
in 2017, thanks to an Information Explosion and Prophet Daniel’s prophetic
words coming true;
New Living Translation
But you, Daniel, keep this prophecy a secret; seal up the book until the time of the end, when many will rush here and there, and knowledge will increase." Daniel 12:4
But you, Daniel, keep this prophecy a secret; seal up the book until the time of the end, when many will rush here and there, and knowledge will increase." Daniel 12:4
The primary application of
"knowledge increased" is in reference to people understanding the
prophecies of the book of Daniel, however, many Bible scholars
believe that this prophecy also applies to an increasing knowledge of science,
medicine, travel, and technology.
We are living in "The Information Age" making this sign seem even more obvious. Even the most skeptical mind must admit that knowledge is exploding in all directions. It is said that 80% percent of the world's total knowledge has been brought forth in the last decade and that 90% percent of all the scientists who have ever lived are alive today.
We are living in "The Information Age" making this sign seem even more obvious. Even the most skeptical mind must admit that knowledge is exploding in all directions. It is said that 80% percent of the world's total knowledge has been brought forth in the last decade and that 90% percent of all the scientists who have ever lived are alive today.
Today thanks to the Internet, the Information
Highway one can have access to unlimited books, Online libraries, literature
and even to Interlinear Translations of the Greek New Testament with a word to
word translation in English for us to; TO CHECK AND MAKE SURE if the English
Translators of any Versions have been really accurate and faithful to the WORD
TO WORD rendering of God’s Holy words and thoughts.
Nouns are words that
describe people, places, or things. Here are some English nouns: book, person,
chewing-gum, country, county, city, road, field, justice, peace, language,
concept, man, woman, god, programmer, linguist. In the first lesson, we learned
a few Greek nouns:
Articles are those
little words in front of the noun. In English, there are two articles:
"the" is the definite article, and "a" is the indefinite
article. Greek has only one article - since there are 24 forms for it, they
couldn't afford a second one. The Greek article is definite, and it is often
translated "the", but it functions very differently from the English
"the".
PLEASE
NOTE:
·
Original Greek text lacks the article (in English,
‘the’) before the Greek word for ‘god’ (which is ‘theos’).
·
Hence in some modern translations, at Luke 20:6 is
translated as, ‘John was a prophet.’ That is because the Greek text lacks the
article.”
There is no single
translation that will clear up the confusion. Because all of the
Translations and Versions in English language and all other languages to have,
“Human Introduced Flaws” while translating from the “Original Copies of God’s
Word”.
One of the best all-around translations I have by personal taste
found is the New American, but for specific Greek texts Wilson's Diaglott is
helpful. I also like the Concordant Literal version.
JOHN 1:1
Some translations say " ... and the Word was God.” But, the word for word in the original
Greek does not say it exactly as it was translated in the those versions.
Take a look at the Diaglott
version for instance:
John 1:1 "In a beginning was the Word, and the Word was with
the God, and a god was the Word.
1:2 This was in a beginning with the God."
Also look at John 1:18 and compare
the New America with the King James:
NAS John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God
who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
KJV John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten
Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
What do you conclude? If God
(Theos, the Almighty Father) always existed, how can He be begotten? Is the
word "God" or "god"(mighty one - can refer to Jesus)?
Look at Acts 28:6 "Howbeit they looked when he should have
swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while,
and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a
god."
Why is the same word from
John 1:1 translated here as "a god”?
As many Bible students are aware, the words "a" and
"an" (called indefinite articles) do not exist in the Greek language.
If one wished to say "I saw a tree," in Greek it would be "I saw
tree" and everyone would know the intent is "a" tree. Therefore a translator would automatically
supply it. This is done everywhere in the New Testament where the English word
"a" or "an" appears.
So in John 1:1. The text
actually says "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God,
and the Word was [a?] God." Should the translator supply the intended
"a" or not?
That is the question. Contrary
to many vocal claims on this issue, it is a sound and reasonable thing to do.
C. H. Dodd, driving force of the NEB, acknowledges "As a word-for-word
translation it cannot be faulted."
(Technical Papers for the Bible Translator, 28, Jan. 1977, page).
Notice that
the translators of the King James Version had no hesitation in using "a
god" in Acts 28:6 where the context makes it obvious. (It also belongs in John 10:33, as the logic of Jesus' reply shows.)
A very good reason for adding "a" in John 1:1 is John
1:18, but the point is hidden in the King James Version. Today it is generally
acknowledged that the better, earlier Greek manuscripts of this verse refer to
Jesus as "the only begotten god" (see
the NASB for example).
John there says no one has ever seen "God," but "the
only begotten god, which is in the bosom of the Father," has appeared to
declare what God is about. First it is clear that by "God" John means
"the Father." Second it is clear that John has two gods in mind --
God himself, the unseen, and the son of God, Jesus, who in his own right is
also a mighty being, "a god." Since John 1:18 distinguishes two
mighty beings, it is apparent that John 1:1 also distinguishes two mighty
beings.
REMEMBER IN THE BEGINNING I MENTIONED
THAT THE ENGLISH TRANSLATION OF THE ORIGINAL BIBLE LANGUAGES WAS TRANSLATED
ONLY IN 14TH CENTURY
WHAT IF RECENT ARCHEOLOGICAL DISCOVERIES
HAVE FOUND THE EARLIEST COPIES OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT?
What are the sahidic Coptic
language translations of New Testament writings?
The Sahidic Coptic
editions of the Greek New Testament were some of the earliest translations of
the Greek of the New Testament. Coptic is not a widely known language these
days—even among scholars of the New Testament. The Sahidic Coptic New Testament in English helps
bridge the gap by providing a convenient English translation of the Coptic New
Testament.
Sahidic was the leading
dialect of pre-Islamic Coptic, and is the dialect in which most known Coptic
texts are written. The first written instances of the dialect occurred around
300 A.D., including translations of Biblical texts.
No one doubts the Sahidic Coptic version is among the most important
of the early translations of the original Greek New Testament. Most scholars
place the Sahidic Coptic translation no later than the fourth century and as
early as the second (the same century of our earliest existing Greek manuscript
of the New Testament: P52).
As such, the Sahidic Coptic manuscripts comprise a rich deposit of
empirical evidence. They tell us what the early Greek texts might have looked
like. They tell us how the Copts understood the text at the time of
translation. In fact, the Sahidic Coptic translation was primarily intended to
proclaim the gospel throughout Egypt where the Copts lived. This, then, was the
text some of the earliest Christian missionaries used to first share the gospel
in Egypt.
Fortunately, knowledge of this Sahidic Coptic evidence is not new.
Unfortunately, popular-level access to legitimate New Testament scholarship on
it is new. In fact, 2011 marks the first year a major academic publisher—Oxford
University Press—published a work devoted solely to the Sahidic Coptic
version’s varying uses of the Coptic word for “god.”
What about our controversial text, John 1:1c? So far, the best way
to understand the Copts’ use of the indefinite article is that they were making
an interpretive, qualitative distinction. This distinction was to describe the
qualities of whatever god/entity was being referenced by the speaker, author,
or both. Thus, the Maltese population in Acts 28:6 were saying Paul possessed
the qualities of “a god.” This fits well with how the Copts were probably
understanding the text: descriptively. The population was not calling Paul a
false god or a lesser divine god. Instead, the population was describing him as
one characterized as having the qualities of “god” as they understood the gods.
Likewise, the best understanding of 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is that the
author is referring to the qualities of the Christian God, even though the “man
of lawlessness” is not the Christian God. As one scholar put it, “It is
therefore preferable to understand the characterization as of someone who is so
self-aggrandizing that he vaunts himself against all gods whatsoever, perceived
or real.”3 Again, this complements how the Copts probably understood the text:
descriptively. The “man of lawlessness” will not exult himself as a false god
or a lesser divine god, but as one claiming the qualities of “god” (in this
case, the Christian God).
The same category easily applies to John 1:1c. This
qualitative/descriptive understanding makes the best sense within the opening
of John’s Gospel. The Copts understood John to mean “the Word” possesses the
same qualities as the Christian God.
Except perhaps for
the book of Hebrews, the Gospel of John gives the most complete explanation in
the New Testament about the divinity of Jesus Christ. As previously
noted, John 1:1-3 and John 1:14 clearly explain that the
Word was God
This wrong conclusion of this Article Author has been based on
INACCURATE ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS / VERSIONS. This inaccuracy has been addressed
in detail above.
and dwelt with the
Father until He later became the Messiah or Christ, meaning
“Anointed One.”
As British
scholar F.F. Bruce commented regarding Jesus: “The New Testament
indicates that he existed before he lived on earth as a historical character.
We are thus encouraged to ask not only, ‘What was the mode of this earlier
existence of his?’ … but also, ‘What is he said to have done in that earlier
existence?’” ( Jesus Past, Present and Future: The Work of Christ, 1979,
pp. 11-12).
As The New
Bible Commentary: Revised explains about the opening passage of John’s
Gospel: “In the prologue the pre-existence and deity of Christ are expressed
explicitly. The Logos [the Greek term rendered ‘Word’ here]
was not only with God in the beginning, but was God
(1:1), and it was this Logos who became flesh and is
identified with Christ” (p. 928).
Using an INACCURATE TRANSLATION will also cause for inaccurate
doctrinal conclusions.
Several other
passages in John’s Gospel reveal significant details that help us understand even
more fully. Consider an account later in chapter 1: “The next day John [the
Baptist] saw Jesus coming toward Him, and said, ‘Behold! The Lamb of God who
takes away the sin of the world! This is He of whom I said, “After me comes a
Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me” ’”(Jon
1:29-30; compare John 1:15).
John the Baptist was
born before Jesus (Luke 1:35-36, Luke 1:57-60) and began his ministry
before Christ began His. Yet John still said of Jesus, “He was before me.”
Why? Considering the whole of John 1, the reason must be that Jesus was the
preexistent Word prior to His human birth (John 1:14).
No arguments with this. Jesus as the Word or Logos definitely
preexisted before John the Baptist.
His existence before Abraham
In dealing with
accusations from the Pharisees in John 8, Jesus said to them, “Even if I bear
witness of Myself, My witness is true, for I know where I came from [beside the
Father in heaven] and where I am going; but you do not know where I come from
and where I am going” (John 8:14).
Later the apostle
Paul commented on their lack of understanding: “The people of Jerusalem and
their rulers did not recognize Jesus, or understand the words of the prophets
which are read sabbath by sabbath; indeed, they fulfilled them by condemning
him” (Acts 13:27, REB).
Just as in the first
century, relatively few people today truly comprehend who Jesus was, where He
came from, what He is doing and what He will yet do.
Later in John 8, the
Jews gathered about Jesus asked Him, “Who do You make Yourself out to be?”
(John 8:53). They simply had no idea of the real identity of the One with whom
they were speaking. It is the same today. Few people really understand the true
origins of Jesus Christ.
He patiently
explained, “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was
glad” (John 8:56). But how was this possible? The patriarch Abraham lived
around 2,000 years before Jesus’ birth. So those who heard Him challenged, “You
are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” (John 8:57). To this
question Jesus gave a stunning response: “Most assuredly, I say to you, before
Abraham was, I AM” (John 8:58).
We should pause for a
moment to digest what Jesus said.
He was declaring that
His existence preceded that of Abraham. Moreover, the phrase “I AM” was a
well-known title of divinity to the Jews. This goes back to Moses’ first
encounter with God at the burning bush.
The Sad
& Shameful Facts and Truths about, “I AM”
Majority of English language Translations of Gods ancient inspired
word stored in Copies of Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek insert the words, I AM in
the English Translated Bibles.
The Majority as seen many
times CAN be wrong too, in totality. The words of I AM are NOT
BIBLICAL. They were NOT INSPIRED BY GOD AT ALL. Because of this wrong
translation of I AM WHO I AM all of the Major Biblical Churches and
Congregations end up having MISGUIDED AND FALSE DOCTRINES & WRONG
THEOLOGIES BASED ON I AM WHO I AM.
Full Study in the Scriptures of Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58 shows the
WATER TIGHT EVIDENCE that Honest, Earnest and Well Intending Biblical Churches
too can be OUTRIGHTLY WRONG in their teachings!!!!!
ATTACHED STUDY IN THE
SCRIPTURES 1 addressing the above proofs in detail.
A crucial encounter with Moses
Moses
was concerned about how the Israelites would receive him and the commission God
gave him, so he asked God, “Indeed, when I come to the children of Israel and
say to them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they say to me,
‘What is His name? What shall I say to them?’” (Exodus 3:13).
Observe
the Creator’s reply: “And God said to Moses,
‘I AM WHO I AM.’ And He said, ‘Thus you shall say to the
children of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you’ ” (Exodus 3:14).
Note
also the next verse: “Moreover God said to Moses, ‘Thus you shall say to the
children of Israel: “The Lord God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God
of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever,
and this is My memorial to all generations” (Exodus 3:15).
As
is common throughout most English translations of the Old Testament, the word
“Lord” here with capital letters is substituted for the Hebrew consonants Y-H-W-H (commonly
known as the Tetragrammaton, meaning four letters). No one today knows for
certain how to pronounce this name, but the most common pronunciation now
is Yahweh. (A common, though errant, earlier rendering
was Jehovah .)
The
name YHWH is similar in meaning to “I AM” (Hebrew EHYH or Eheyeh ).
Both imply eternal, self-inherent existence (compare John 5:26). No one
created God. We should understand that He has many names in Scripture, each of
which tells us something about His wonderful, divine nature and character.
Given
this background, therefore, when Jesus said in John 8:58 that He
preceded Abraham and referred to Himself with continuous existence using the
term “I AM,” there really should be no doubt as to just what He meant. The
Jews well knew what He meant, which is why they immediately tried to stone Him
to death (John 8:59). Jesus was saying that He was the very God
of Israel.
ATTACHED STUDY IN THE
SCRIPTURES 1 addressing the above proofs in detail. This study of mine applies
to this part of the article too.
Who was the God of the Old Testament?
The fact is, Jesus Christ
is the “I AM“of the Bible. He was the guiding Rock who was with the
children of Israel in the wilderness when they left Egypt (see Deuteronomy
32:4). Paul wrote: “Moreover, brethren, I do not want you to be unaware that
all our fathers were under the cloud, all passed through the sea, all were
baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea, all ate the same spiritual
food, and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank of that spiritual
Rock that followed [accompanied] them, and that Rock was Christ” (1
Corinthians 10:1-4).
The “I AM“of the
Old Testament is further described as abounding in “goodness and truth” (Exodus
34:6). Similarly, the New Testament tells us that Jesus was “full of grace and
truth” (John 1:14). Jesus Christ is “the same yesterday, today, and forever” (Hebrews
13:8).
There are, it should
be noted, places in the Old Testament where YHWH clearly
refers to God the Father. For instance, in Psalms 110:1, which we’ve noted
earlier, King David stated, “The Lord [YHWH] said to My Lord …” YHWH
here is the Father speaking to David’s Lord, the One who became Jesus
Christ. Often, however, the name YHWH refers to the One who
became Christ—and sometimes it refers to both the Father and Christ together,
just as the name God often does.
The above MEGA CONFUSION of when to replace capital LORD with (YHWH)
Yahweh and when to understand that small case words like Lord refers to Jesus.
In the above Psalms 110:1 SEE FOR YOURSELF. There had to be one word in
CAPITLAL LORD and the other in smaller case Lord. But by replacing and avoiding
usage of the personal name of (YHWH) as Yahweh or better as a
Tetragrammaton instead of Lord or LORD
for superstitious reasons of the Jews, well-meaning Christians too create a
Mega Confusion for readers of the Bible in English language as to when, WHO IS
SPEAKING & WITH WHOM?
In Psalms 110:1, “The Lord [YHWH]
said to My Lord …” See the further mess created by the Article Author of Who is Jesus?
Even (YHWH) is now given small case letters as Lord and even the scripture
referring to Jesus is given small case letters as Lord. THIS IS TOTALL WRONG
AND INACCURATE. This is how NEWER & MORE FALSE DOCTRINES ARE CREATED ON THE
BASIS OF WRONG TRANSLATIONS AND WRONG QUOTES.
See so many Parallel
Translations of English Bible below of Psalms 110:1 There are
clearly 2 Lords here. One Capital LORD and the other Small case Lord.
New
International Version
Of David. A psalm. The LORD says to my lord: "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet."
New Living Translation
A psalm of David. The LORD said to my Lord, "Sit in the place of honor at my right hand until I humble your enemies, making them a footstool under your feet."
English Standard Version
The LORD says to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
New American Standard Bible
A Psalm of David. The LORD says to my Lord: "Sit at My right hand Until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet."
Of David. A psalm. The LORD says to my lord: "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet."
New Living Translation
A psalm of David. The LORD said to my Lord, "Sit in the place of honor at my right hand until I humble your enemies, making them a footstool under your feet."
English Standard Version
The LORD says to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
New American Standard Bible
A Psalm of David. The LORD says to my Lord: "Sit at My right hand Until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet."
King James Bible
A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Holman Christian Standard Bible
A Davidic psalm. This is the declaration of the LORD to my Lord:" Sit at My right hand until I make Your enemies Your footstool."
International Standard Version
A declaration from the LORD to my Lord: "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool."
NET Bible
A psalm of David. Here is the LORD's proclamation to my lord: "Sit down at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool!"
New Heart English Bible
[A Psalm by David.] The LORD says to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet."
GOD'S WORD® Translation
[A psalm by David.] The LORD said to my Lord, "Sit in the highest position in heaven until I make your enemies your footstool."
JPS Tanakh 1917
A Psalm of David. The LORD saith unto my lord: 'Sit thou at My right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
New American Standard 1977
The LORD says to my Lord:
“Sit at My right hand,
Until I make Thine enemies a footstool for Thy feet.”
Jubilee Bible 2000
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
King James 2000 Bible
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.
American King James Version
The LORD said to my Lord, Sit you at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.
English Revised Version
A Psalm of David. The LORD saith unto my lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Webster's Bible Translation
A Psalm of David. The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thy enemies thy footstool.
NO CONFUSION AT ALL WHEN TRANSLATORS ARE NOT ASHAMED OF
USING THE NAME OF THE LORD EVEN AS IN A TETRAGRAMATTON (YHWH). It is much better to use YHWH as it is in the
Original Copies of Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek rather than the Man Made word of
LORD in capitals.
See below, how there is absolutely no confusion of who is
speaking to whom, which LORD is speaking to which Lord?
Young's Literal Translation
A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: 'Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
Young's Literal Translation
A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: 'Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
Lord Jehovah said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies as a stool for your feet.”
Lord Jehovah said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies as a stool for your feet.”
World
English Bible
Yahweh says to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet."
Yahweh says to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet."
American
Standard Version
Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Darby
Bible Translation
{Psalm of David.} Jehovah said unto my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put thine enemies [as] footstool of thy feet.
{Psalm of David.} Jehovah said unto my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put thine enemies [as] footstool of thy feet.
Consider that except
for Jesus, no human being has ever seen the Father (John 1:18; John
5:37; John 6:46; 1 John 4:12). Yet Abraham, Jacob, Moses and others
all saw God (Genesis 18; Genesis 32:30; Exodus 24:9-11;
Exodus 33:17-23). So the YHWH, the “I AM,” the Word,
who later became Jesus Christ, was the One they saw. It was He who dealt
directly with human beings as God in Old Testament times. Christ later died for
our sins and became the ultimate mediator between God and man (1 Timothy 2:5),
a role He had already partially fulfilled as the preexistent Word before His
human birth.
ATTACHED STUDY IN THE
SCRIPTURES 1 addressing the above proofs in detail. This study of mine applies
to this above and below part of the article too.
So the Word was
indeed the God of the Old Testament—and yet the Father fulfilled this role in a
very real sense as well. For Jesus dealt with mankind on the Father’s behalf as
His Spokesman (compare John 8:28; John 12:49-50). Moreover, in many
passages in the Old Testament it can be difficult to separate these two great
personages, whereas the New Testament is usually clear in this respect.
Of course, since
Jesus came to reveal the Father (Matthew 11:27), the logical conclusion is that
the Father was not generally known by those in Old Testament times except for a
few of the Hebrew patriarchs and prophets. King David, for example, is one
who understood.
Partially quoted
earlier, Hebrews 1:1-2 states: “God, who at various times and in
various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, has in these
last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things,
through whom also He made the worlds.”
In this opening
passage of the book of Hebrews the clear implication is that the Father is the
moving force behind the whole Old Testament. In context, verse 2 interprets
verse 1. Though God the Father is the prime mover behind the Hebrew Bible, it
is through Jesus Christ that He created the entire universe.
Also, the vital
principle of the Bible interpreting the Bible helps us to understand the intent
of Hebrews 1:1 in the light of other scriptures. Since God made the
worlds through Christ and created all things by Him (Ephesians
3:9; Colossians 1:16; John 1:3), He dealt with man through the agency
of the preexistent Word, Christ.
Jesus—both God and man
Jesus Christ today is
the mediator between God the Father and man. But to perfectly fulfill that
crucial role He had to have been both God and man.
Again a Non Biblical Teaching
is being imparted here. “He had to have been
both God and man.” This again is your IMPLICATION here. You are implying something that
is not a part of the meaning of MEDIATOR.
He was truly a man in
every sense of that word or we have no salvation from our sins. The apostle
Paul calls Him “the Man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5), as does the apostle
Peter (Acts 2:22).
Okay
Paul tells us, in a
verse quoted earlier from a different translation, that we should have the same
humble, serving attitude of Jesus Christ, “who, although He existed in the form
of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped [i.e., held
onto], but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant,
and being made in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man,
He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a
cross” (Philippians 2:6-8, New American Standard Bible).
When new Bible Students start studying the Scriptures then we are
told to always READ THE CONTEXT of the Quoted Scripture to understand what the
particular verse is SPEAKING OR REFFERING OR ADDRESSING about. But then I see Pastors and Elders and
Missionaries NOT PRACTISING this rule of READING THE FULL CONTEXT OF THE
SCRIPTURE. This is annoying and
disappointing.
WHAT DOES THE CONTEXT OF
PHILLIPPIANS 2; 6 -8 TELL US? Is it speaking about the DIVINITY of Christ or is
it emphasizing on HUMILITY? The context stresses the
concept of humility and obedience, and Phil. 2:6 itself is clearly meant as the
prime example of this for all Christians.
Even The Amplified Bible, for example, translates
Phil. 2:3, 5 this way:
"Instead, in the true spirit of humility (lowliness of mind) let each regard the others as better than and superior to himself.... Let this same attitude and purpose and [humble] mind be in you which was in Christ Jesus. - Let Him be your example in humility."
"Instead, in the true spirit of humility (lowliness of mind) let each regard the others as better than and superior to himself.... Let this same attitude and purpose and [humble] mind be in you which was in Christ Jesus. - Let Him be your example in humility."
Paul is not telling us
to regard ourselves as equal to others. He is clearly using Jesus as his
example to teach that each Christian must, as the very Trinitarian Amplified
Bible above puts it, "regard others as better than and superior
to himself".
CONCERNING THE WORD "FORM" [morphe]:
Many Trinitarian Bible scholars attempt to force an interpretation of "form" [morphe] that includes the idea of "essence" or "nature." However, even many Trinitarian Bible scholars admit:
"Morphe is instanced from Homer onwards and means form in the sense of outward appearance." - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, 1986, Zondervan, p. 705, vol. 1.
Therefore, God, Jesus, and the angels all have the “essence” or “nature” of spirit. This obviously does not make them all equally God! Man, mouse, and canary are certainly not all equally man simply because they all have the same “essence” or “nature” of flesh.
Many Trinitarian Bible scholars attempt to force an interpretation of "form" [morphe] that includes the idea of "essence" or "nature." However, even many Trinitarian Bible scholars admit:
"Morphe is instanced from Homer onwards and means form in the sense of outward appearance." - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, 1986, Zondervan, p. 705, vol. 1.
Therefore, God, Jesus, and the angels all have the “essence” or “nature” of spirit. This obviously does not make them all equally God! Man, mouse, and canary are certainly not all equally man simply because they all have the same “essence” or “nature” of flesh.
If Paul had intended `nature,' `very essence,' etc., he certainly would not have used a word which means only external appearance (morphe). He would have used one of the words which really mean absolute nature.
CONCERNING THE WORD
"HARPAGMOS":
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance (by trinitarian writer and trinitarian publisher) tells us that harpagmos means "plunder" and that it comes from the source word harpazo which means: "to seize ... catch away, pluck, take (by force)." - #725; 726, Abingdon Press, 1974 printing.
And the New American Standard Concordance of the Bible (also by Trinitarians) tells us: "harpagmos; from [harpazo]; the act of seizing or the thing seized." And, "harpazo ... to seize, catch up, snatch away." Notice that all have to do with taking something away by force. - # 725; #726, Holman Bible Publ., 1981.
But, in spite of some trinitarians' reasonings and euphemistic renderings, it is clear from the way it was always used in Scripture that harpagmos means either taking something away by force (a verb), or something which has been taken by force (a noun).
Paul certainly wouldn't destroy this example of humility for fellow Christians by saying that Jesus is thinking that it isn't "robbery" (KJV) for him to be equal with the Most High. Besides being a nonsensical statement, it is just the opposite of humility. Instead, to be in harmony with the purpose of Paul's example, we must find a Jesus who regards God as superior to himself and won't give even a moment's thought about attempting to take that most high position himself, but, instead, humbles himself even further.
When even a number of the best trinitarian scholars are willing to admit the actual meaning (or even an equivalent compromise) of harpagmos at Phil. 2:6, it becomes necessary for honest-hearted, truth-seeking individuals to admit that Phil. 2:6 not only does not identify Jesus as God, but that it clearly shows Jesus is not God.
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance (by trinitarian writer and trinitarian publisher) tells us that harpagmos means "plunder" and that it comes from the source word harpazo which means: "to seize ... catch away, pluck, take (by force)." - #725; 726, Abingdon Press, 1974 printing.
And the New American Standard Concordance of the Bible (also by Trinitarians) tells us: "harpagmos; from [harpazo]; the act of seizing or the thing seized." And, "harpazo ... to seize, catch up, snatch away." Notice that all have to do with taking something away by force. - # 725; #726, Holman Bible Publ., 1981.
But, in spite of some trinitarians' reasonings and euphemistic renderings, it is clear from the way it was always used in Scripture that harpagmos means either taking something away by force (a verb), or something which has been taken by force (a noun).
Paul certainly wouldn't destroy this example of humility for fellow Christians by saying that Jesus is thinking that it isn't "robbery" (KJV) for him to be equal with the Most High. Besides being a nonsensical statement, it is just the opposite of humility. Instead, to be in harmony with the purpose of Paul's example, we must find a Jesus who regards God as superior to himself and won't give even a moment's thought about attempting to take that most high position himself, but, instead, humbles himself even further.
When even a number of the best trinitarian scholars are willing to admit the actual meaning (or even an equivalent compromise) of harpagmos at Phil. 2:6, it becomes necessary for honest-hearted, truth-seeking individuals to admit that Phil. 2:6 not only does not identify Jesus as God, but that it clearly shows Jesus is not God.
Jesus’ manhood was
full and complete in the sense that He lived a life as a physical human being
that ended in death. He became hungry and ate, grew tired and rested, and
walked and talked just like any other human being. There was nothing in His
physical appearance to distinguish Him from other Jewish men
of His time (Isaiah 53:2).
of His time (Isaiah 53:2).
The essential
difference was in the realm of the spiritual. Jesus continually received needed
spiritual power from the Father (compare John 5:30; 14:10). In fact, He
possessed God’s Spirit from conception, actually being begotten in Mary’s womb
through the Holy Spirit. Although tempted like every one of us, Jesus never transgressed
God’s law. He never once sinned (Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 2:22).
One of the most
insidious heresies in the 2,000-year history of Christendom is that Jesus
Christ was not really a man—that He was not really
tempted to sin. The apostle John condemned this teaching in the strongest terms
(1 John 4:3; 2 John 7).
YOUR ABOVE TEACHING THAT
YAHWEH IS JESUS AND JESUS IS YAHWEH CAUSES THE FOLLOWING ILLOGICAL SITUATIONS
·
God cannot die, but your God in the flesh as Jesus dies.
·
How can Jesus be the perfect second Adam, if he is God in the Flesh.
This is totally cheating by Almighty God then.
·
Satan was totally stupid to tempt Jesus (GOD IN THE FLESH) when he
was praying for 40 days and 40 nights. Cause Satan cannot tempt God. Even if it
was God in the flesh!!!!!!! Jesus was TRULY 100% MAN. Not Almighty God in
Flesh.
·
Jesus was truly Man in the Flesh. He could have failed in his test.
If Jesus is Almighty God in the Flesh, then the whole Sacrifice of Christ is
RIGGED DRAMA – ONE BIG FIASCO. Satan could never tempt Jesus then. (What a Joke
this is)
This heresy began in
the first century and it persists even today, continuing to lead people away
from the truth of God. We need to recognize that if Jesus had not really been
human, then His sacrifice for our sins would be null and void.
JESUS WAS ONLY HUMAN. SON OF GOD. SON OF MAN. TRULY HUMAN. PASSED
THE TEST AS A SECOND ADAM. God Almighty does not cheat. Your doctrines and
teachings make Almighty God of the Bible look like some Manipulator or Deceiver
like the Allah of the Quran.
The Son of Man and the Son of God
Jesus Christ is
called “the Son of Man” more than 80 times in the New Testament. It was the
term He most commonly used in referring to Himself.
Christ repeatedly
referred to Himself as the Son of Man in connection with His sufferings and
sacrificial death for the sins of mankind (Matthew 17:22;
Matthew 26:45; Mark 9:31; Mark 14:41). Although of divine
origin, He deliberately identified with our human plight—the sorrows and
sufferings of the human race. The prophet Isaiah foresaw Him as “a Man of
sorrows and acquainted with grief” (Isaiah 53:3).
Sympathizing with our
human frailties and difficulties, Jesus tells us: “Come to Me, all you who
labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take My yoke upon you and
learn from Me, for I am gentle and lowly in heart, and you will find rest for
your souls. For My yoke is easy and My burden is light” (Matthew 11:28-30).
He also called
Himself the Son of Man when referring to His role as the coming Ruler of
humanity in the Kingdom of God (Matthew 19:28). He even used it when He
described Himself as “the Lord of the Sabbath,” explaining how the seventh-day
Sabbath should be observed with mercy and compassion (Mark
2:27-28; Matthew 12:8; Luke 6:5).
Then, when He came
into the region of Caesarea Philippi, Jesus asked His disciples, “Who do men
say that I, the Son of Man, am?” (Matthew 16:13). They replied
by recounting several commonly held but erroneous beliefs about Jesus’
identity. Simon Peter responded by saying, “You are the Christ [the
Messiah], the Son of the living God” (Matthew
16:16). Jesus observed that the Father Himself had revealed this wonderful
truth to Peter (Matthew 16:17). And all of His apostles came to recognize the
same truth, which is reiterated elsewhere in the New Testament (Matthew 14:33; John
20:31; Romans 1:3-4).
Indeed, while Jesus
was human in the fullest sense, He was also more than simply human—for He was,
in fact, the divine Son of God with all that name implies. Indeed, as we have
seen, He was the Creator God made flesh. And when His human life was over, He
returned to the divine glory He shared with the Father from
eternity past.
The Son of Man and the Son of God
Your above title heading should have TRULY
been this way. The Son of Man and the Son of God and God
the Father in Flesh of Son of God, Jesus. The Author of this Article,
“Who is Jesus?” smartly avoided and God
the Father in Flesh of Jesus because in
the Bible there are direct statements of Jesus being referred to as, The Son of Man and as, The Son of God. But in the
whole Bible there is no direct third statement of and as, God the Father in Flesh of Son of God Jesus.